I remember hearing this somewhere when i was in high school, but can only recall them saying it was because of the training of massive numbers of paratroopers somewhere (im assuming Soviet), and how they had many more weapons being made every day.

I'm curious about whether or not the wealth generated from the free labor has been overtaken by the various historical costs, as well as the modern costs of social services, incarceration and policing etc

Everyone on all sides is talking about it in the context of some current events. Historians, can we get the record straight on the violent/nonviolent tactics of patriots and the context in which their actions took place?

EDIT: For simplicity's sake, let's keep it pre-declaration?

Why is it just the States that see their movies, TV-shows and music exported to the rest of the world at such a large level compared to say, Canada? And when did this change exactly occur? Are they even at the top or do they just appear that way, couldn't find any real numbers online.

I have a 1939 Nazi war merit badge and have no where to sell/get any information on it. it is in decent/good as shape as anything from 1939. it has its original ribbon with it. can anyone help me out? whats the value? where to sell it (dirt cheap)? anything???

I am looking for a few book recommendations that cover the history of the area that now encompasses Germany. I just finished "Amsterdam: The World's Most Liberal City" by Russell Shorto, which covers the history of Amsterdam from its first inhabitants.

I searched this sub using the sidebar, and I've also search amazon and my library, but there is so much WWII to wade through.

Can anyone recommend better search terms? What was this area called in earlier history? Or better yet, can any recommend any specific books?

I am reading a book that asserts private property "in the means of production" was eliminated in postrevolutionary China. I assume it refers to the post-Cultural Revolution but pre-Deng Xiaoping era. It cites no source for this claim.

Was there really no private property whatsoever? Were there notable exceptions to this claim?

Not sure if this is an appropriate post for this subreddit, but I'm interested in learning more about feudal Japan (beyond what a basic google search will yield). I studied history in the past (and am a high school history teacher now), but my knowledge is fairly limited beyond Canadian history and Europe (the two World Wars in particular).

Any recommended academic texts would be appreciated. Preferably something that can serve as an introduction at first before I delve into more specific topics.

Thank you.

Want to add, I did check the wiki and there appears to only be one book that covers the period I'm looking at, and its focus is almost entirely on the military aspects.

I found myself wondering the other day if ancestor worship could have turned into polytheism, as noble or aristocratic houses worshiped their ancestors (in the style of the Roman ancestor veneration and display in the atria) and elevated them to the status of divinities for the consumption of the common people. Is there any evidence of this having happened?

Hey, folks. Lately, I have been trying to get better at matching tenses when writing papers, and I've stumped myself with my current paper. What tense are we supposed to use when referring to a primary source? I know that in literature/English classes, you're supposed to use the present tense, but I am not sure if that changes when discussing a source being used for historical analysis.

For example, would it be

"In his memoirs, Marcus Aurelius writes..."

or

"In his memoirs, Marcus Aurelius wrote..."?

Thanks for the help!