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Or to ask it simply - which Rome killed more people for their beliefs, polytheistic or monotheistic Rome?
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In movies based on the Middle Ages or Revolutionary War, we see armies that march in straight lines, all synchronous walking styles, and at the command of one man. The commander would yell a word in a deep voice to control the army.
Here's an example from The Patriot http://youtu.be/njFOIvoN9pc
Was this really how they were? Or was the military usually pretty sloppy and people walked at their own paces?
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Title. I know they were forever immortalized in history for their feat, but what did they do?
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As far as I know the Ashikaga fell in 1573, but Tokugawa Ieyasu didn't take power until 1600, Toyotomi Hideyoshi had power but wasn't the Shogun. So who was?
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As someone who is interested in the history of botany, I'm well aware of the very important invention of binomial nomenclature by Linnaeus and his role in botany at large, which includes his plant classification system, which he published in Systema Naturae in 1735. The history around this important botanist and his system is more or less well known to the community of historians of science. Since plant taxonomy almost certainly didn't stand still in the following centuries and probably still is an important part of plant biology even today, I was wondering what this sub knows about plant classification systems after Linnaeus inventions.
I would also be interested in books or other publications (preferably recent ones) about this topic.
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Could any of you recommend some good books on Viking culture and warriors, also something on ancient Greece? Thanks!
PS. Are these types of questions allowed? This counts as historiography ,right?
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I do feel stupid for asking this but I cannot think of another place.
When historians refer to the certain time periods in centuries/decades/milleniums, they often use "early" or "late". So like the 1820's were the early nineteenth century, and the 1880s would be the late.
My confusion comes from when we discuss times in the BCE/BC era of human history. Would 220 BCE, for example, be considered early or late 3rd century?
I know it may seem like a strange question but whenever I tutor students I often stumble over such an issue because such a thing has never been brought up in my classes.
Edit: I hope everyone understands my confusion but in case it isn't clear, since BCE runs from higher-lower numbers in regards to dates, it would be easy to say from some points of view that 280 BCE would be considered early and 210 BCE would be considered late, or vice versa.
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From both the Axis and the Allies side it looks that the Nazis treated the PoWs of the West allies vastly better than the Soviet PoWs aswell as the West Allies treated german PoWs way better than the Soviet Union.
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I understand that England was unwilling to recognize the UDI because of no independence before majority rule, but to my knowledge they also seemed uninterested in getting involved because of its position as a part of the Commonwealth in Southern Africa. What was their end goal? Why were they so committed, especially when Rhodesia was located in an area that communism was moving into (Angola), and itself was facing a communist insurgency?
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