I know it's become one of the great touchstones of gaming in the intervening decades, but how was it received in its early days?

It's quite a broad question but I've been wondering about it for quite a while. I read that money was only worth anything according to the type of metal, is this true and does this mean that the money of today would be worth next to nothing because they are alloys of copper and zinc/nickel?

Suppose the 10 twenty cent pieces are worth something, what could they buy? A horse?

Were the prisoners actually thrown down there and forgotten about (to starve to death)? How common were they?

It is a popular notion that Charles the Great was in fact illiterate. However, given his pedantry about classical Latin, as well as his tendency to surround himself with learned men such as Alcuin, not to mention his devotion to the cause of educating the denizens of his kingdom, it would seem this is incorrect, and merely a rumor, if not an outright fabrication. From whence did this misconception arise, and why might somebody wish for the King of the Franks to look like an uneducated man?

Was it divided into different kingdoms independent of each other, or was it split into regions that each had a different governor? Why did they do it this way? Was his death unexpected?

Was the conquest of Britain profitable for the empire in terms of trade, mining, agriculture and so on? I understand that Ireland and Scotland may not have been profitable for their conquest, not to mention difficult, but did Roman officials and generals see that the occupation of Britain was worth it?

Or did they? In my research, I've found that there's a variety of alcoholic beverages in Meso and South America, but very few in North America, with the only real exceptions being tiswin in what is now the southwestern US. Did Native Americans in North America make alcohol? If they didn't, why not?

I hear it repeated every so often and it always makes me wonder if there was a distinction between 'what people knew was happening was legal' and 'what was happening was actually justified by national law'.

Edit: Grammar

Was there actual mass immigration to Israel immediately following the passing of the Law of Return? I feel like maybe in 1950, there was a rush to leave Europe following the tragedy of the Holocaust, but in 1970, when the law was amended to include those of Jewish ancestry, did foreign governments see this as unnecessary? Was there an even larger immigration in 1970 than before?

Thanks in advance!

I am running a role-playing game that deals with an alternate history of the 11th century but had some questions.

I am having a hard time finding information on the type of warfare and troop equipment that was around during this time. The only thing I can really find is information on the Battle of Hastings.

What type of equipment was regularly used? I know peasants made up large amounts of armies, as they were called to service. What were they armed with? Crude farming tools?

Also, were Pikes generally used in this era just yet? I know Swiss Pikemen ended up becoming incredibly popular later on. Were pikes used at all in the 11th century?

Ranged weapons consisted of just bows at this point too, right?

North Yemen (Yemen Arab Republic) was mostly Shia and South Yemen (People's Democratic Republic of Yemen) was mostly Sunni. What factors led to the merger of the two countries in 1990?

All other instances of the French government receiving a 'new title' were the results of either revolutions, coups or otherwise involved military occupations occurring within France itself

I read a comment on Reddit awhile back saying that Claus Von Stauffenburg was not necessarily against the Holocaust but believed that Germany needed to end the war for its own sake, which led me to ask this question. Any insight?