And did the overall sentiment change over the course of the war?

What happened if a soldier was found with a Star of David around his neck?

I know that there were plenty of Portuguese and Dutch traders that arrived in Japan in the 16th and 17th centuries, but were there any Japanese people who traveled to Portugal or the Netherlands during that time period?

I'm aware of Fall of Constantinople in 1453 being a major turning point because it blocked the trade route into Asia with the Ottoman Empire taking over. This caused serious economic pressure for Western Europe and may have played a role in the persecution of the Jewish population at the time. Obviously in countries like Spain, religious dogmatism played a big role being under Catholic rule.

The most famous expeditions are Vasco da Gama's travels across the African continent into India and of course Christopher Columbus sailing into North America. The latter if which I believe spent years campaigning to the crown of Ferdinand and Isabella of Spain to fund his expedition. It's fascinating how people became famous by perfect timing.

So what other incentives led to the days of early exploration in the late 15th century?

Hi i recently was in a thread in r/memes and some commenters there pointed out the relationship between scientist and the church especially about galileo and archimedes

Was it true that the church ripped the archimedes codex in half and scraped the pages and had hymns written on top of it and poorly preserve it?

Did galileo got "cancelled" for denying and contradicting church doctrine?

Did the church believe the Earth was flat?

While reading history, I've noticed some historians making a distinction between these three terms, but then not really explaining the differences in context. For example, in A Student's Guide to the Study of History, by John Lukacs, he says that the best works on medieval history are not found in the works of medieval chroniclers but in more recent books. The crux of my question is besides the point Lukacs made. What is the meaningful distinction, if any, between these three terms?

As the title asks, I'd like to read more about this fascinating figure. I'd just like some advice to help make sure I'm reading accurate information :)

How much land could a farmer cultivate, and how many people would (let’s say 640 acres or a square mile) of farmland be able to support?

While people think of accents as being regional, in Britain and the UK as a whole they seem to also serve another purpose - giving people an idea of exactly what class you are and what your social/societal/community standing would be as well. Was there a specific point in history where regional accents clearly determined your class and community? Was this specific difference ever mentioned in any texts or records?

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I think this is pretty interesting, and although it's not always accurate it remains to be a huge influence in people being able to determine these things about someone just by their accent. This has an effect even on non-British people, and having grown up in Canada with a lot of British immigrants as neighbours, I can safely say that almost everyone here (who knows something about the UK/GB) notices it too to one degree or another. For instance, I am able to clearly tell the difference between a "posh" British accent and a "non-posh" British accent.

I recently learned that Japan had a hierarchical caste system for a long time, similar to Hindu society, and that there were some similarities, including a caste of "untouchables" (Hindu dalit/Japanese burakumin). This is interesting to me, being someone of Hindu ancestry who doesn't know much about Japan, and it makes me wonder how much these ideas of "caste" can really be conflated.

What did these caste systems have in common, and how did they differ? I'm interested in the specific caste-related customs surrounding intermarriage, inheritance, social obligations, loss of caste, discrimination, and upward mobility.

Also, how did caste affect both societies' historical development into the present day?

Given that he died only in 1989, was never brought to trial for war crimes and reigned for almost 44 years after the end of the second World War dying a free man, did Emperor Hirohito have any active and direct participatory role in WW2, and the Second Sino-Japanese War before and during that? My understanding is that after the Meiji Restoration, the Emperor of Japan did actually indeed have significant substantive political and military power, at least in theory as undisputed sovereign of the nation/empire, no longer merely a symbolic, ceremonial but impotent figurehead after many centuries of being relegated as such during the various Shogunate eras, the last one being the Tokugawa shogunate.

Title pretty much says it all.

I thought of this just from seeing another unrelated post about salt, and realised that I've never considered whether very small amounts of sea water could have been used in the past to salt one's food. Is there any historical evidence to suggest that this was once common practice anywhere in the world?

If not, how / with what did people salt their food? I'm talking specifically about salt here and not other spices, as I know that spices have a very rich history, but regarding salt, I'm less knowledgeable.

Please enlighten me!

Edit: I should have added "due to 'pure' salt being too rare or expensive?" to the end of the title question

What Bundesliga team (or Gauliga team back then) did Hitler support?

My school claims 90% of the natives died from diseases but I really find that hard to believe. I could see 25%, I could even see 50%, but 90% is reaching. Sounds like trying to mask a genocide as an unfortunate accident to me.

I realize this question may be flirting with the 20-year-old rule, but I am banking on my assumption that the causes for the over-representation of Sikh-Americans in the trucking industry began at least 20 years ago.

I come from an Italian region, Emilia-Romagna, that has two successful American football teams, like half of the teams competing in the national baseball championship is located here and our regional capital is informally called "basket city".

I can understand how American stuff spread successfully to Rome... but how did American sport became so successful in "peripheral" regions?

I mean those slavic tribes that became part of Rus, from their earliest history.

I live in the south of Italy in Brindisi, Apulia. In this hot day of july I was walking In my town and I passed by the Swabian Castle built by Fredrick II of Swabia and then I thought came trough my mind : How could people of that age manage to fight in armour during summer when I am struggling with heat and sweat with a t shirt and shorts on. I own a replica bascinet which I wore sometimes at home and outdoor during autumn, and It wasn't the most comfortable experience, but it was ok, but I guess in summer it would be an hell with the sun heating up the metal. I don't own other armour parts yet but I am quite sure wearing that during hot months would not definitely be comfy.