So I’m going off an assumption that in the 12th century, cousins Alfonso VII of Leon and Alfonso I of Portugal both spoke the same language and general dialect, and that the language divide happened later over time. And my question I guess is kind of just “why?”

Seemingly they wouldn’t have been that isolated from the rest of Castile/Spain for them to unintentionally drift away into a new language by accident. Was there ever any explicit policies or leadership decisions ever made that set out to differentiate or define the differences in their languages? Or was it more of a situation where the dialect just shifted over generations until it was considered an entirely new language?

Like when Ceuta went from Portugal to Spain in the 17th century, at the time would there have been a significant language barrier between the Portuguese residents and their new Spanish overlords?

And was the Portuguese language’s evolution connected to their colonization efforts? Like would the language mutate and shift even faster in Brazilian isolation away from Spanish influence, and then make its way back to influence Portugal?

Edit: and after reading a bit more about it, was my original assumption that it was Portuguese that did the heavy lifting with the shifting even accurate? Is Portuguese actually closer to the “Vulgar Latin” they were speaking 1000 years ago, and could it actually be that the rest of Spain did most of the big fluid language shifting?

Did this change over time? If so, how?

I’ve started reading Ordinary Men: Reserve Police Battalion 101, and in the early chapters is details how many Axis soldiers and men were being utilised to round up Jewish populations, ensure they were kept in ghettos and eventually sent to camps to be killed.

The sheer manpower described to do this is more than I ever realised. I was wondering if this was in fact a small percentage of the Axis’ available manpower, or if their efforts to eradicate Jews may have superseded logical sense.

If they hadn’t focused on carrying out the Holocaust alongside their war efforts, would the numbers that could be used in direct combat have had a negligible impact on the war for them?

I've heard a similar question to this asked on Nazi relationship with Japan and China and how the hand waved it away by making them "honorary Aryans" but I've never heard them adopt a similar policy on Finland or hungry even though they aren't anymore Indo-European then the Japanese. also it's easier to say people far away that most Germans barely interact with are "honorary Aryans" as few issues would come up with them interacting but would a German woman who had a relationship with someone from hungary or Finland be charged with "defiling the race" under the Nuremberg Laws as if she slept with a Russian a African or a jew? Did talk of a "Aryan destiny to take lebensraum from the Asiatic horde" ever hurt there relationship with Finland and hungary? Considering the they are believed to have an Asian origin? Also more broadly how did minor Axis powers feel about Nazi racial ideology in general? I remember reading Finland was unique in the only people on the Eastern Front to allow their Jewish soldiers to go to synagogue and I think Bulgaria wasn't happy about anti Jewish laws so the only let them apply in the land that they took from Greece with German assistance?

How did such a practice become so ubitiquious in the United States? While I’m aware the country has deep Christian roots and origins, the US is still very culturally diverse from state to state. And yet, in almost every hotel across the country one can find a Bible in the bedside table. How did a practice like this become so universal? Was there any pushback against it?

When I read about the dissolution of the USSR, the question seems to be that, had the USSR just had a couple more months, they would have completed their reforms and maintained their union.

So, why did Gorbachev not buy time by militarily preventing the secessionist movement. It seemed to me that, Soviet inaction is what caused the chain reaction of secessions, and that intervention early on, in Eastern Europe, would have made others think twice before moving forward, and maybe just bought enough time.

Me and a peer of mine are going to conduct research into the Anarchocommunist commune in Catalonia, which existed from 1936 untill 1939. It's a school research project for which we have a full year to investigate the subject.

I was wondering if some historians on this sub can recommend me some trustworthy and objective sources (Books, sites, documentaries etc.) about the economic and / or political system of that society.

I dont know if this is the right sub for this, if not steer me in the right direction.

I’ve been trying to dig up articles on this and haven’t come up with many good or conclusive sources.

So I’m in charge of adapting a book that follows a character over a few events in history. One of the early events occurs around 1895/1900s in New Mexico and depicts the main character’s family being killed on their ranch by Apache raiders.

The book was written a while ago and there are some aspects I need to consider for more modern sensitivities and this is one of those events I want to make sure is accurate so that I don’t depict history in a false way or poorly represent a culture.

I could very easily change it to “bandits” that killed his family, but if there’s historical context to it, it might be more faithful to the story to keep it.

How accurate are these raids?

2nd question, as a historian, SHOULD these events be changed in the adaptation of the book?

The book is fiction but has historical events and characters throughout, similar to what you might have seen in Forest Gump.

Thanks for your advice and info!

I had always assumed it was because the Spanish refuse to give the last remnant of their colonial empire. Someone told me it’s been Spanish for much longer than that.

I know in Asia, there are radio calisthenics, and in the case of China, schools start the day with everyone in the schoolyard doing synchronized exercises. I also know in Sparta, every man was expected to be a soldier (or at least that's what google told me). I'm wondering if there were groups where it was considered the citizen's duty to stay fit, since I don't even know how to google this question.

And if there aren't, why? My kneejerk answer is that the ruling class would be afraid of an uprising. In modern times, with our huge population, maybe it'd be too resource intensive?

Honestly, this question is spawned from martial art related media, like manhuas or movies, where it seems like every single person knows how to fight.

Also, I'm paranoid that I'll come off as ableist, like I want to live in a country where everyone has to do kickboxing. I don't, I feel like that violates agency and autonomy.

In Ancient Rome we often hear about peoples who were not part of the Empire as barbarians. But why is this? What does “Barbarian” actually mean?

The full text of the order is as follows

General Orders No. 11

_______

Head Quarters 13th Army Corps, Department of the Tennessee, Oxford, Miss. Dec. 17, 1862.

I.. The Jews, as a class, violating every regulation of trade established by the Treasury Department, and also Department orders, are hereby expelled from the Department.

II.. Within twenty-four hours from the receipt of this order by Post Commanders, they will see that all of this class of people be furnished passes and required to leave, and any one re- turning after such notification will be arrested and held in con- finement until an opportunity occurs of sending them out as pris- oners, unless furnished with permit from Head Quarters.

III.. No permits will be given these people to visit Head Quarters for the purpose of making personal application for trade permits.

By Order of Maj. Genl. U.S. Grant

JNO. A. RAWLINS Ass't Adj't Genl.

And then there's Grant's letter to the Assistant Secretary of War

Head Quarters, 13th Army Corps.

Department of the Tennessee

Oxford, Dec. 17th 1862

HON. C.P. WOLCOTT

ASST. SECTY OF WARWASHINGTON, D.C.

Sir:

I have long since believed that in spite of all the vigilance that can be infused into Post Commanders, that the Specie regulations of the Treasury Dept. have been violated, and that mostly by Jews and other unprincipled traders. So well satisfied of this have I been at this that I instructed the Commdg Officer at Columbus to re-fuse all permits to Jews to come south, and frequently have had them expelled from the Dept. But they come in with their Carpetsacks in spite of all that can be done to prevent it. The Jews seem to be a privileged class that can travel any where. They will landat any wood yard or landing on the river and make their waythrough the country. If not permitted to buy Cotton themselves they will act as agents for someone else who will be at a Military post, with a Treasury permit to receive Cotton and pay for it in Treasury notes which the Jew will buy up at an agreed rate, paying gold.

There is but one way that I know of to reach this case. That is for Government to buy all the Cotton at a fixed rate and send it to Cairo, St Louis, or some other point to be sold. Then all traders, they are a curse to the Army, might be expelled.

I am, Sir, Very Respectfully

Your Obt Servant

U.S. Grant

Maj Genl.

Edit: I'm not sure why there's a "Transportation" flair.

I’ve read/heard conflicting opinions on this from friends and sources I’ve found online, so I was hoping to find a concrete answer here. Just to be clear, I’m not asking whether Jesus actually created miracles or was resurrected.

From what I've read, slavery was widespread in the during the late republic and early empire. With that said, I don't recall anything about slavery during the late empire. What had happened to those people? Were they released? Did they become citizens once citizenship became universal?

So I’ve been reading about the unification of these two countries, nationalism and all that jazz. I’m wondering though, did people from these places call themselves that before unification. So pre 1860s and 70s did someone from The kingdom of Bavaria call themselves German or Bavarian? Similarly did someone from the kingdom of two Sicilies call themselves Italian or sicilian? Did foreigners refer to them as such?