I realize the star and crescent only became associated with Islam in the 20th century, so I was wondering what medieval Muslims might have used instead.

This sounds like a strange question, so here's some context:

I took a course on the history of the Roman Empire during my undergrad, and my prof said that a newer, alternate translation for Caesar's last words was very roughly equivalent to "[Generic swear word]" followed by calling his murderers something equivalent to "You mentally disabled/stupid children!"

My memory of this is pretty sketchy, since this was a couple years ago, and I think she emphasized the roughness of the translation to English, and that this was merely a new idea, not a wide-accepted theory.

On the one hand, it makes more sense as the last words of someone suffering a violent death, but on the other hand I'm suspicious of my memory on this one.

Note: Deleted the original thread and reposted without offensive language in the title. Sorry for breaking the rules!

Im doing an essay for uni and my question reads : To what extent has Spanish society come to terms with the legacy of the Civil War and the dictatorship? Examine public discourses and debates, OR analyse a film or a work of fiction, OR reflect on the country's different ways of accommodating private and public memories, OR compare with other memories of authoritarianism. I have chosen to review a film as it might be good in terms of having a lot of information to work off. Which would you suggest would be a good one to help me answer this question? or which film have you seen which really relates to this question? any help would be great, thanks!

If not why?

I'm curious how the precedence of these ranks came about. It is, in the words of Mr. Spock, highly illogical to me.

This may not be the right subreddit to ask this, but the most prominent example I can think of is the Taj Mahal where origin and inspiration came from: "In 1631, Shah Jahan, emperor during the Mughal empire's period of greatest prosperity, was grief-stricken when his third wife, Mumtaz Mahal, a Persian princess, died during the birth of their 14th child, Gauhara Begum"

I am aware that there must have been historical methods of birth control, however my understanding is that they are not as reliable as those we have today. What methods did prostitutes employ to avoid pregnancy and what was done in the event of unwanted pregnancies?

Came across this entry in famed early medieval historian Guy Halsall's book, Worlds of Arthur, which came out last year, so I'm presuming his research is pretty recent.

In AngloSaxon archaeological discussions this [furnished inhumations] is still more or less universally accepted as an element introduced from northern Germany. Yet, unlike the house-types, this evidence provides no very convincing empirical basis for the assumption. The ancestral burial ritual in the Saxon homelands was cremation, the rite the Saxons definitely brought with them to Britain. By the fifth century, inhumation had long been usual in the Roman Empire. The custom had tended to lack grave-goods but from the late fourth century these began to be reintroduced.

These graves have usually been interpreted as those of incoming Franks or other Germanic barbarians. This reading is still probably the most common one, especially amongst French and German archaeologists. However a strictly archaeological interpretation shows there is nothing un-Roman about these graves. The ritual is essentially Roman and the material deposited almost exclusively originates in the Empire's northern provinces. What changed was the deceased's burial in a more elaborate and archaeologically visible costume than had hitherto been the case.

So, this is very much news to me, and surprised the hell out of me when I read it. But as Halsall said, this isn't the majority view right now, so I'm curious as to the perspectives of other european archaeologists on this subject, if this minority view is also considered an outlandish one.

And what causes did they ascribe to them?

Judah had been separated from Israel for around 200 years when the ten northern tribes were taken into captivity. How did the people of Judah react? How did the government react?

I read somewhere that they didn't use slaves to build the pyramids, but my History Major roommate told me that they did indeed use slaves, and that they were Jewish. I was actually under the impression that we didn't have evidence of the Jewish story as told in the Bible.

Could anyone clarify for me? What class of people were used to build the pyramids? Were they Jews? Were the Jews ever in Egypt as slaves? Does the Exodus story have basis in reality?

Specifically, what did the monarchs do to extend their influence and what type of relationships did they have to foster in order to succeed?