Can anyone shed light on the origin of this phrase?

I don't understand why this is a huge historical moment. Providing a framework to deprive your enemy of a specific type of property while you allow yourself to keep that same property doesn't seem very original, moral or effective.

After becoming an acclaimed expert on the subject by reading the wiki article, I think I understand it and its ramifications. I don't believe the EP had a material impact on the war (very open to changing that view). I guess I just don't understand why this is anything more than a historical footnote.

Was it like we see in religions today? Did they worship according to the Classical Planets and the seven day week?

How did Romans see themselves within the world framework?

And to follow-up: Shouldn't sailors, of all people (the protagonist is the pilot of sailing ship), have a rather relaxed relationship to all things water?

Thanks!

The story goes that during WWII it was discovered that condoms could be used to protect gun barrels during shipping and non-use periods.

The condoms were so effective that Winston Churchill ordered thousands to be manufactured that were 3 times normal size - in order to accomodate the quite large barrels of military weapons. It is said that in order to demoralise the Germans, Churchill also ordered each package to be labeled "One Condom. Made in England. Medium size"

Can anyone find any proof of this story? I think it's great.

In English and derived legal systems. Or any other if relevant. To me it seems like such a bizarre thing, as it seems like most of the people who make laws (i.e. wealthy land owners) would be against it. Have attitudes to squatters changed in recent years? I know English land law can be pretty damn complicated so what I'm wondering is mostly to do with attitudes as opposed to legal specifics.

Though most people now have a rough idea of what shape their culture took in any decade of the previous century, it seems slightly absurd to me to imagine an 18th Century Frenchman talking confidently about the way his compatriots were behaving in e.g. the 1640s.

Have people always had this kind of idea of the passing of the times? Have people always felt so intimately connected to the century past (the period from which they could expect to have living ancestors, after all) or have factors such as the development of photography, the moving image and recorded sound made this much easier for us?

• 1910s WWI
• 1920s Gangsters, prohibiton, dollybirds, Charleston
• 1930s Great Depression, rise of Hitler
• 1940s WWII
• 1950s Suburbia, American dream
• 1960s Free love, hippies, drugs
• 1970s Vietnam, Disco
• 1980s Yuppies, greed, synthesisers
• 1990s Grunge, Generation X
• 2000s The Web, social media, Silicon Valley

What was the origins of that idea?

I have heard that silent reading was almost unheard of before seventh century. Is this notion true? If so, what was the cause? One of my philosophy professors also made a sidenote (during a greek philosophy lecture) that thinking in your head was also rare in those times but I'm not sure if this has any basis in fact at all.

How do you collect such archaeological evidence of a wheel not being used? Also, why didn't it strike the very first archaeologists, that the Mayans hadn't used wheels? Didn't they have potter's wheels?
Is it only a legend or history? Didn't they ever come in contact with traders who had used wheels?

What were actual duels in Europe like? In your typical movie, duels are shown to be long and very "clashy". I've heard that in truth, a typical duel would last under a minute, although I couldn't find any reliable sources.

Was there any real technique, or would it just be two guys bashing at each other? I have some (limited) experience with fencing, and from what I can tell, a lot of the technique goes out the window when it comes down to an actual match.

In modern sword sports, a round is very short, which seems to support the "under a minute" statement, but I feel that your average combatant would become more defense when his life was at stake, and as a consequence, duels would last longer.

Against the Swedes, the French, and the Germans the Russians have employed scorched earth tactics to deny their foe food. I understand this was also devastating on the civilian population to lost their food. Did the Russian government ever take into account the civilian suffering and try and compensate/prepare for it?

Some years ago I did a frontiersman program in the Boy Scouts of America, and learned history and skills from the American Revolution. Some nights we heard songs from the era that revolutionaries sang. This one in particular was a father answering questions to his son as Washington's army marched by.

I remember a common verse in it was "that my dear son" and another was "that old british rag" (in reference to the British flag when the son asks about the Patriot's flag)

I have looked online in databases of songs from the period and cannot find anything.

I also apologize if this post is out of place for this subreddit, but I really couldn't think of another place to find this information.

I've read in the past that one of the main reasons Western Europe started to look for a new path to India was because of the the encroaching Turks on the Byzantines and that if it had never happened it would have delayed the discovery of the new world by as much as a century or two.

Is this claim at all justified? How much did the Turkish invasion of Anatolia and Greece shift Europe's trade focus westward, if at all?

Of course, everyone knows that Nazis were extremely antisemitic. But what did they think about other non-Aryan races like blacks or Latin Americans (mestizos)? Were they ever persecuted, or discriminated against? Were there even blacks in Nazi Germany or the Weimar Republic?

The Nazis named the Japanese "honorary Aryans," but what did they think about other Asian ethnicities like the Chinese? What about Middle Easterns? Since they believed that the Aryans were a master race, did Hitler plan to exterminate all non-Aryan races? What did Hitler think about atheists?

Also, since White Americans are descendants of "Aryan" Europeans, did Nazis consider White Americans Aryans, even though they were their enemies?