In modern times, gay men and women are essentially viewed as their own social classes, who homogeneously only want to have sexual relations with other members of their group. Certain physical mannerisms or even genetic characteristics are often assumed to signify that a person is homosexual. Homosexuality, much like heterosexuality, is viewed as rigid. A gay person was a gay person since birth, and will be until they die. It is impossible for sexual orientation to change.

Before the 19th century, before the concept of homosexuality emerged, were there any known descriptions of people who would fit the modern definition of a lesbian or a gay man, in that they were sexually attracted to people of their own gender and never assumed to be interested in people of the opposite gender? Is it presentism to assume that kings Edward II and William Rufus would identify as gay, were they alive today, as sexuality at the time was defined by acts rather than identity?

Are there any known examples of a person being described as monosexual and gay? By this I mean, any reference to "John has sex with men and not with women", as opposed to "John had sex with a man once".

Sen's theory basically says that no functioning democracy ever had a major famine. Is that correct?

Not sure if this is appropriate for the sub. If it isn't please delete it mods.

Various royal families have, throughout history, made it a practice to marry relatives in order to consolidate power. Are there any stories of relatives refusing to marry because one or both of them were unable to be sexually attracted enough to consummate the union? Was intermarrying practiced primarily only be royal families, or did other families also engage in intermarrying? For example, a high ranking noble family that similarly sought to either retain or increase power/wealth/status. Or even a family of commoners who had attained a certain level of financial prosperity--skilled craftsman, tradesmen, and merchants, etc.

Also, what were the first types of exercises or other activities for the purposes in my initial question?

Hi! I just wanted to know how Muhammad was received in Europe to the population- both the educated and uneducated.

I ask because the cowboy tradition originally came from Spain and later it was transferred to New Spain as the terrain is similar. As I understand it natives started out as ranch hands, then the Irish settlers and so on.

At what point did this transition into a wholeheartedly American identity?

Was it possibly with Hollywood Westerns?

The port of Libertalia seems like a genuine attempt to form a true anarchist collective. It also seems completely made up.

Is there evidence of any pirate captain plundering ships and forts in order to put economic pressure on what they considered exploitative and unethical actions by a state (or state-sanctioned party)? Or was the Spanish Main just where the money was?

Are the Game of Thrones type societies that are usually associated with medieval England accurate portrayals of what their class system was really like? Were there a variety of noble houses that existed underneath a unified king? If so, how did this class system arise? What initially differentiated a noble from a peasant or commoner?

Edit: Also if so, to what degree would these houses interact with each other? i.e How much would the nobility of the far north know of the nobility of the far south?

A very serious question, I know. Does anyone know how he managed to always have that famous mustache of his? I mean, how did he keep it so consistent? Did he use wax, and was that a common practice for men with facial hair at the time?

I stole the wording of this question from /u/theamazingmrmaybe who put it much better than I did in a previous post where I asked the question but broke a subreddit rule (sorry!). He explains that if going by the "great man" theory of history that he is possibly "the greatest figure in all history" and goes on to describe him as a genius in the same strain as a Mozart as a musical genius, but for Caesar his genius was for "what he wanted to do" which was to rule Rome. So, to put it succinctly, what made him so great?

doing a Historical investigation on the Aztec empire. -What was the importance of human sacrifice -importance to the function of aztec society -how did affect aztecs in occupying their capital if you could please provide some info, essays or useful sources it would be much apprecitated

Quick backstory: So a relative of mine just shot down my attempts to bring reason to the current Ebola sensationalism on the news, by firing back and claiming this is the "same thing that [he] witnessed in the 1980s, with the outbreak of AIDS and officials telling everyone everything is fine".

Knowing my relative is often wrong about history (and I personally am rather outraged at his attempts to support news media fearmongering), I come to AskHistorians to provide a better viewpoint: What factors are assumed to have caused the outbreak of the HIV virus in the US?

Edit: Rules

Several films depicting the Great Patriotic War show entire battalions of Soviet soldiers being ordered to get out of trenches/foxholes and charge the enemy as they did during WWI (Enemy at the Gates, Shtrafbat, etc.) Were these tactics actually employed? How often? Were they actually successful?

Today the Jewish people commemorates the destruction of both of their temples. I know a lot of what we know comes from Josephus, besides from that source how much does history agree with the Jewish lore?

I've been enjoying Jane Austen films, but the mens clothing looks so unbelievably hot - especially with so many layers around the neck - that I can't see how they managed. Please advise how it is possible that the men didn't drown in sweat, or if they were comfortable, why the women didn't freeze. Thank you so much.