So recently at my law school while studying a case regarding deforestation we had a sociologist come and explain us some issues relating to ecologism and environmentalism. While I agreed with most of what was said I found a claim particularly suspicious. The speaker in questions said that one of the defining characterists of modern society was it parting away with tradition, and its rapid changes. He said that the Romans hardly changed at all during 200 years while western society nowadays changes its social costumes in the time span of decades. I off handedly find this rather an over simplification, maybe there is a name to this sort of fallacy? When one believes that modern phenomenons are unprecedented in history? I offhandedly thought of a passage in the Story of Genji, written in the XI century, when during a confucionist ritual, the confussian scholars are mocked by courtesans for being old fashioned and stale and wearing clothes out of fashion. But I was rather curious about the example given regarding the Roman empire. This professor said that from the time of Jesus until 200 years later Roman soldiers equipment where practically the same. So I was curious to know how much the Roman empire changed with in its 700 or 800 year history…

In the Christian World

Assumption- Historically some groups believed that some form of "magic" existed. These groups identified individuals as magic practitioners.

Hypothesis- These individuals did something which was later identified as magic. That something is scientifically identifiable today.

What events were attributed to magic people?
What things were the magic practitioners actually doing?

I know that they had almost impeccable morale, meaning that they rarely fled, but was it something in their training that made them so strong against other armies?

Have you ever wondered how monasteries came to be so important to western Christendom, what set Martin Luther off, or how Mussolini and the fascists interacted with the Papacy? This is the place for you!

We have a full panel fielding questions on the History of Western Christianity, AD 30 - AD 1994, including:

• /u/talondearg, for Christianity in Late Antiquity

• /u/Mediaevumed, for early Medieval missionaries and the Carolingians, including the Carolingian reforms

• /u/bix783, for the Anglo-Saxon, Norman, and Celtic churches, as well as the conversion of the Vikings

• /u/haimoofauxerre, for early and high medieval Christianity

• /u/telkanuru, for sermon studies, popular piety, monasticism, and reform movements in the Middle Ages

• /u/idjet, for anything you might want to know about heresy and heresy-related activities

• /u/Aethelric, for the Wars of Religion in Early Modern Europe

• /u/luthernotvandross, for the German Reformation and counter-Reformation

• /u/Bakuraptor, for the English Reformation and the history of Methodism

• /u/Domini_canes, for the history of the Papacy and the Catholic Church in the 20th century.

So, what do you want to know?

NB: This is a thread for the historical discussion of Christianity only, and not a place to discuss the merits of religion in general.

Time frame is 1000 BCE to 1600 CE. Examples from anywhere in Europe, North Africa, or the Middle East are welcome.

In a first past the post voting system voters normally have to vote tactically, against parties they don't like but not particularly for the party they would like to see in government.

What are some good examples of democracy where the majority of people's views were represented by the government at the time? What made them effective and different from the systems we have today?

When talking about famous people it is customary to call the by their last name, but when talking about a famous French emperor and military leader, most people use his first name. Is this something that only happened after his death or was it always true?

Although I am aware that the Nazis (especially the SS) did some nasty things, are today's movies, videogames, and books making the Nazis look more evil than they really were?

Would any exotic, darker skinned Easterners (Indians, Ethiopians, etc.) ever appear in medieval England? If so, how? Was trade with the East occurring in England and not just mainland Europe? Would a human have been traded to England from the East in the Middle Ages?

And if an Easterner came to be in medieval England, how would he be treated due to his skin color? With superstition?

Thanks so much!

EDIT: I'm thinking House of Plantagenet era, specifically, but Middle Ages in general; Early, High, or Late.

A quick scan of the FAQ didn't get me anywhere so I'd like to know where medieval people and others in subtropical environments got their vitamin C. Berries?

From what I know of the renaissance people viewed it (to name one aspect) as if the quality of the Latin was diluting. In the carolingian renaissance however the Latin was getting back to its roots. How did the people of the renaissance to this fact. And in a lot of other aspects to. Agreed that the middle ages never really achieved the greatness of the Romans but still the cathedrals they built are fabulous.

People in Greece, Bulgaria and Serbia for example stayed mostly Christian.

Could he be able to name the pope? Was he aware of the turks? Did he know the what was happening in the hundred years war? Sorry for the bad English.

I've heard multiple older folks discuss the fact that the United States did not really have an issue with what Germany was doing in WW2 before Japan bombed pearl harbor. Is there any truth to this? Is it because the U.S. did not really understand what was going on? I tried to find some sources on this but wasn't really sure what I could find credible.

So, essentially, after Alfred the Great's grandson Aethelstan et al became the first 'official' Kings of the Kingdom of England as it is known, prior to the Norman Conquest of England, and ignoring random periods like when Cnut ruled, I'm trying to figure out what the royal standard for the Kingdom could have been. Just the Wessex Flag with the wyvern? Or would there have been something grander?

I've read that things like heralds and standards weren't really a 'thing' until the 12th Century and were often retconned into past history by people of the times, but I'm trying to do research on Anglo-Saxon history for an AH project I'm working on, which runs with the idea of the Saxons winning Hastings.

Obviously, that means that the iconic Lions are unlikely to have been used on coats of arms by a medieval Saxon England, so I'm trying to figure out would could have been used instead, using the actual period of Anglo-Saxon-ruled England as a base.

Thank you in advance for all your help.

I am a citizen of Rome at the height of the Roman Empire, one day I decide I would like to see this glorious Roman Empire for myself. Could I do it? Where could I travel? Where couldn't I?

I know this is a gray area of whether or not this is history, but I'm writing a paper about the role of women in the Odyssey, and i'd like to use the Iliad as a secondary source, but I don't have time to reread the Iliad to find areas where Athena directly or indirectly helped/interacted with Odysseus.

I know she frequently assisted the Achaeans, but could anyone remind me of any specific events that would effect Odysseus?

I can understand not trying to explore the Sahara a bit more, but were efforts ever made? Did anyone propose going down the Nile a bit longer? I'm almost positive some sort of expedition was made...

Hello.

So I'm joining the crowd and asking a WW2 question. Rather famously, the US had only one soldier convicted of desertion, however I was curious to know if other nations during the Second World War had the same level of desertion (at least convicted of desertion). A focus would be on the major nations: Britain, France (Which I would imagine be more complicated due to the duality of Free France/Vichy military existence), Germany, and the USSR.