1 Answers 2014-04-13
It is now quite standard to use the word "constitution" in the sense of "a written document that describes the legal framework by which a country is governed". What I'd like to understand in some detail is how this use of the word (or its obvious cognate in other languages) arose.
The Commonwealth constitution of 1653 was called an "Instrument of Government". That of 1657 was the "Humble Petition and Advice". The Enlightenment-era Corsican constitution of 1755 was called "Cunsulta generale di Corti", and as far as I can gather from its French translation, seems to use the word "constitution" only once, in the preamble, with a fairly unclear meaning. The US Declaration of Independence uses the word in a similar unclear sense "[King George] has combined with others to subject us to a Jurisdiction foreign to our Constitution, and unacknowledged by our Laws". The Articles of Confederation in 1777 do not use the word "constitution".
The OED (headword "constitution", entry (7) in the second edition/1989) does not offer very convincing examples. They do quote this from 1750: "England is now the only monarchy in the world that can properly be said to have a constitution", but obviously this cannot refer to a written document. In fact, even the US Constitution isn't completely clear as to whether the word "constitution" refers to the document itself or to the legal framework it describes ("We [...] do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America").
On the other hand, the word (or rather the Latin "constitutio") seems to have been used to designate important laws edicted by the Roman emperor, or the pope.
Can anyone shed some light on this?
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
Antisemitism has been around forever it seems. From pogroms in the middle ages to the holocaust just last century. When did it start, or rather: what are some of the earliest examples of antisemitism, either in word or deed?
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
I grew up in Europe, so don't know that much about US history, and from this perspective, when reading US media it seems like that part of history is not really discussed at the moment.
I've been reading about the 20th century pogroms against Jews and other minorities in Eastern Europe including Russia.
In Poland for example we had a 'controversial' public debate about the pogrom in Jedwabne where a town was complicit in killing hundreds of Jews.
Having recently watched Mississippi Burning it seemed like the complicity in ethic violence in part of the US was a pretty widely spread phenomenon.
Can somebody give me more facts/numbers about that please?
-what form did the violence take? was it one off events, or were there events similar to pogroms that took place in Europe?
-what are the approximate numbers of victims of the KKK? Can somebody point me to a study about it?
-can somebody point me towards relevant literature please?
thank you.
1 Answers 2014-04-13
I see r/urbanexploration posting pictures of old lodges all the time of old vacant buildings. Did the Freemasons become mpre secretive or just fade out?
1 Answers 2014-04-13
I've had some Chilean history courses, but Allende always seemed like a fairly positive person for the nation. Why is he seen in such negative light in America? Is it just the "socialism" or is there more going on?
Also why did Augusto Pinochet stage his military coup and have Allende killed?
2 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
Why did it crumble so far? Or was it never as glorious as it is imagined?
1 Answers 2014-04-13
3 Answers 2014-04-13
I'm reading Adrian Goldsworthy's Caesar: Life of a Colossus, and he mentions that contrary to popular belief the Roman pilum were not designed to bend upon impact. Before reading that, I was always told that the pilum was meant to bend upon impact, making it impossible for an enemy to throw back and a huge encumbrance on shields it had struck. What's the deal? Is the idea of the bending pilum a bunch of hot air?
2 Answers 2014-04-13
It's a trope I've heard that Roman army engineers would be made to stand underneath their bridges. The purpose being, to ensure that the engineers performed their due diligence in their construction and design work and make sure they would not collapse. In the business world, we call this "aligning incentives" ;).
Is there any evidence that this was actually a thing that happened, either as a matter of policy or on individual occasions? Where there perhaps any other non-Roman armies that employed this technique? It strikes me as the sort of thing that Xerxes may also have done, or been accused of doing.
3 Answers 2014-04-13
You often here about units like archers and cavalry being made up of auxiliaries.
Why did the Romans trust them in battle, especially if they cavalry had been on there flanks?
Any major examples of auxiliaries not just retreating but joining the opposing side?
How did the Romans respond if so?
Cheers.
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
Specifically Trafford Leigh Mallory.
1 Answers 2014-04-13
1 Answers 2014-04-13
There were many cultural and economic differences, I'm sure, but were any drastic enough to play into the conflict that became the Civil War? I wrote a paper regarding the mid-1800's earlier this semester and now I am genuinely curious about this topic.
1 Answers 2014-04-13
This is a photo I bought in a French market because I thought it was interesting. I wonder if anyone could tell me anything about it - if you recognise the uniforms etc?
Thank you in advance!
1 Answers 2014-04-13