A redditor made an off-hand comment that:

"[The Roman's would] separate the men from the women (at least the younger women), move all the men to other parts of the empire and then move Roman men in to the conquered settlements to breed new Romans. This system was ignored in later centuries and has been blamed for the fall of the western empire. The Germans that entered the Empire were never culturally shattered in the same way leading to kingdoms within the empire."

Is there any truth to this claim? To what extent?

Bombers included.

I go to a private christian school, unfortunately, and my religion teacher insists that America was founded on christian principals. I tried to explain to her that she was wrong but, as expected, I was told to shut my mouth.

How did the French Revolution and Napoleonic Wars affect France and Spain's overseas empire?

I was thinking that these events destabilized France/Spain and also pitted them against Great Britain, which had a large navy.

What areas did France/Spain lose? What parts of their overseas empire were they able to hold onto, and why?

Was anything returned to France/Spain after the Bourbons were restored?

Is there still a lot of support from the people of Argentina to annex the Falklands? What were the repercussions of Argentina losing the conflict?

Seeing as aiding Italy in Greece pushed back the timetable for Barbaross by several months, how come Germany didn't delay until next year when the time was right?

Based on the work, organization and success they did

I know there are many people, including college professors, who believe that it never happened or that it was greatly exaggerated. If so many people believe this, there must be some compelling evidence. I'd like to look at the evidence of both sides so I can make my own opinion. I looked this question up online but I couldn't find any good answers. So if someone could give me evidence for both sides of the argument I would greatly appreciate it. Sorry if this question offends anyone.

This is something I have always wondered about.

I was watching an old tv show and it showed a woman in the late 1800s or so out on the farm, running from a boar, when she tripped over her skirt. It got me wondering why women traditionally wore (and still wear) skirts and dresses, but especially in historical times? I can think of very few pre-modern activities in which wearing a long skirt would be advantageous - hunting, riding a horse, farming, running from a wild animal... Why didn't both sexes' fashion evolve to wear pants?

I notice that all images of the past have these very somber-looking people. I understand painted portraits of royalty, wanting to showcase themselves as regal and a force to be reckoned with etc etc... But what about the regular people who got portraits done with their families that we see? There never seem to be any smiling faces. Whereas now - and for as long back as I've seen (pictures of my parents, and even grandparents) - people smile in photographs. You're TOLD to smile for pictures.

Was getting a picture taken not a happy occasion? Were smiles considered frivolous things to waste on such an expensive thing? I'm very curious, and would love to hear your insight.

To provide some background, this question is based on the game Crusader Kings 2 where a war over a territory can end if the defending ruler dies, even if the attacker is heavily favored in the "war score".

So as a secondary question, are there any examples of emperors/kings/dukes/counts who died while defending against an invasion and the attacker stopping their invasion?

I read an article about pirates raiding Egypt from 1287-1102 BCE (or something along those lines, specifics arent relevant to my question) but who decided what year to start counting down from, were records actually kept this way or do people try to create timelines and fit them into it? When they say the copper age in Asia was 4500 BCE and the bronze age was 3500 BCE were they actively counting down on their records as well? Is it the same exact 4500 BCE in Europe? What was Asia counting down for- if it is the case. If its not the case then when did the world get on the same page with what year it is (I know some places still arent but when did the majority)