this may be for a different board but I wanted to see if anyone here could direct me to some resources.

My question: With German and Latin being the main contributors to English and both of them being very gendered in language how did English not gain this as a feature of the language?

Say I’m a young, 18 year old male with no disqualifying physical conditions who just graduated out of Highschool in 1942 in the US. Assuming I don’t choose to volunteer, is being conscripted by 1945 an inevitability for those my age? Or will only a fraction of eligible people in my year be drafted into the military?

I do not want to know anything about the Jewish genocide evidence that came AFTER the end of World War 2. I am curious if the world knew about what was happening against the jews and other ethnic minorities during and before World War 2 prior to the allied forces exposing and uncovering the truth of what happened to ethnic minorities in Nazi Germany.

Were there prominent Holocaust genocide deniers in Europe and the United States prior to the end of World War 2?

What kind of evidence existed before the end of World War 2 for a genocide occurring in Nazi Germany

Who were some prominent people that provided testimonies for being victims of the genocide prior to the end of World War 2?

What were some arguments from the public for proving that there was a genocide happening in Nazi Germany and what were some arguments attempting to say that there was no genocide happening?

What propaganda devices were used attempting to prove there was no genocide happening or propaganda devices glorifying the genocide from Nazi Germany?

I want to get an understanding of what the atmosphere and discussion of what was happening in Nazi Germany was like during and before the war

I do not care about any evidence, photos received or taken, after World War 2, i only care about before and during world war 2. Sharing information about leaked photos of the camps during and before world war 2 would be acceptable

Napoleon and the founding fathers were contemporaneous, revolutionary and built lasting-ish nations. A lot of the debate around commemorating Napoleon seems to involve his decision to reestablish slavery while the slave owning and defending founding fathers get a pass. What caused this divide in how these two sets of leaders are remembered today?

The Wandering Jew plant (Zebrena) screams its name is a historical vestige of a time when botanists were a little racist.

When did the term Wandering Jew come to be used to refer to the plant we know as the Wandering Jew today? Who were the individuals most responsible for the spread of the term as a name for the Zebrena plant?

Who first applied this term to a plant? When did the usage of this term to refer to the plant take off? And why? (Is my hypothesis about the field of botany correct?)

I suspect the story is more complicated than a simple origin question, as I’m also interested in the broader forces in botany/taxonomy and in (American? British/European) society that led to the widespread adoption of the term.

In many history textbooks some historians argue that dropping the nuclear bombs was the most humane way to end the war with the least casualties. The reason being Japan’s proud tradition of never surrendering and if America had invaded the Japanese mainland many more civilians would have died. But is this the most accepted theory today? Are there any sources, either Western or Japanese that assert or deny this theory? Also was there an alternative way to end the war aside from invasion or bombs that was dismissed? Any information would be greatly appreciated.

Hi so I'm a Christian, and I listen to a lot of apologetics. The one thing I often hear repeated in these apologetic videos is that there's tons of historical evidence for the existence of Jesus and his crucifixion under Pontius Pilate. I believe that this all happened, but could someone please explain the historical, extra-biblical evidence? Much appreciated, thanks.

A friend told me to be suspicious of anyone given a title under Napoleon I because it was easy to claim you were given one after his departure. Is this true? I’m not finding research to support it.

During the short time the Vikings inhabited Vinland, they had conflicts with the natives that proved to be a factor in causing them to leave. Did the native peoples who fought the Vikings capture any metal weaponry or armor? We’re any of these relics left by the time other Europeans started colonizing in the 1500s?

In the story, Horus allows Set to ejaculate inside him, and Set sees this as a victory, that he's dominated Horus. But as Horus now has Set's semen, he gains magical power over Set, allowing him to defeat him.
(I don't know how many other versions of this tale there are though.)

Did Egyptians, like Romans, see a man who ejaculated inside another as dominant, while the receiver was defeated? Did the idea about gaining magical power over someone by taking their semen inside you apply to women as well? Etc.

How widespread were these impotence trials? Was it a localized phenomenon? How long did it last? When did it end? I’ve only found pop culture type articles about this so I’m curious what historians think.

The bishops of Lyon, Agobard and his successor Amulo, famously ranted against the power that the Jews had in Louis the Pious' courts and throughout the empire. Apparently, the Carolingians were very friendly towards them and put them under their protection. Is this true? What was the life of a Jew like in the Carolingian era (IX century)? Was the bull of pope Gregory I the Great regarding the protection of Jews still respected? What was the general attitude of the people and of the clergy towards Jews?

Thanks in advance.

Hi, I have recently re-read Diamond's Guns Germs and Steel and I was left wondering:

Europeans brought all the devastating Old World diseases to the Americas in 1492, and the diseases spread quickly in all directions devastating the continent's native population. The devastating effect of these diseases can be attributed to the lack of immunity to them in the native populations.

However, the arrival of Columbus to the West Indies in 1492 was not the first contact of Europeans with the native peoples of the Americas.

Vikings visited North America in around 1000AD. According to sagas they met with the local Inuit population. Diamond and Wikipedia both claim, that perhaps Norsemen from the Greenland colony regularly sourced wood from mainland North America.

Lastly, the Norse Greenland colonists were in long-term contact with the Inuit who came to Greenland from North America (both trade and war), which is well attested in both written and archeological evidence.

My question, therefore, is: Is there any evidence for a widespread epidemic in the Americas after 1000AD, that could be attributed to the Inuit contact with Vikings? Most of the diseases that devastated the Americas in the late 15th and early 16th century were already well established in the Old World prior to 1000AD, so the Vikings would definitely be exposed to them before the contact with the Inuit. I also suppose that the Inuit were not completely isolated from the rest of the New World population, so the potential potential epidemic would spread to other native groups.

I'd be grateful for any reply.

For example, in the video game oblivion, ghosts can only be attacked with silver weapons. In the witcher series, the protagonist has a silver sword just for monsters. I‘m specifically wondering where these stereotypes come from, and if these are based on history, and if so, when and how did these stereotypes form?

Of the 4 evangelists, the name "John" was commonly chosen by 23 Popes, and "Mark" was chosen once.

In contrast, no Popes ever took their name from the other 2 evangelists. Is there a stigma around those names? If so, why?

Before we had things in the sky to take photos of the world and show us exactly what it looked like, what kind of crazy math, technologies or techniques did cartographers use to try to make their maps and charts as accurate and to scale as possible? I’m especially interested in mapmaking techniques from the 17th and 18th centuries (and double especially interested in maritime charts from that time), but if anybody has knowledge of earlier time periods I’d be interested in that as well.

I was interested in a reference to Franz Bopp in Edward Said's Orientalism. In the libraries of Paris, Bopp had access to samples of ancient languages gathered by Napoleon's invasion of Egypt. It seems easier for linguists like Bopp to study change over time in their field, compared to Darwin sailing around the Galapagos gathering biological samples. Did the fields of comparative linguistics and natural science grow up together (like the von Humboldt brothers), or did theory from one influence the other first?

I'm well aware that many male rulers and elites had their own harems, like that of feudal Japan, the classical/postclassical pharaohs of Egypt, and of course the many wives of European crowns. But, I'm not very sure about the female counterpart. Were there royal harems for the female crowns, empresses, or elite?

I'd expect not due to the social norms of the time, but I can't help but think of it. Were the females polygamists? Did they have harems of there own?