I know historians refer to the Jacobean, Georgian, and Caroline eras, but I think the public only really know about the Elizabethan, Victorian, and Edwardian eras. Why is this?

In a lot of movies about Classical Antiquity you can see noble houses with no visible doors. You sometimes see a wall around the villa but the house itself is open. There are usually guards in the frame but it still feels weird. I can understand peasant village houses having little security, but it feels strange seeing patricians or aristocrates living in the open in a lot of historical movies.

I know this is a huge question. I'm curious if there is any consensus, or at least competing theories, about whether the inhabitants of Britain during the Late Bronze Age would have spoken an "Old European" language like Basque or Etruscan, or an unattested Indo-European language potentially associated with the Beaker culture.

Do place-names or archeology give us any hint about about what language might have been spoken before the introduction of Brittonic?

I understand that there was a sort of resentment to Franco in the west especially as he collaborated with Hitler and Mussolini but, how was Spain viewed in international politics and why did they last so long? Were there any attempts at regime change? Being almost smack-dab in the middle of the NATO influence must’ve had an effect, how did Spain interact with the west and NATO until Franco’s death? Did rebellions and agitations promoted by the Soviet Union and other socialist states instituted to try to topple Spain? How did Spain finally become a more-or-less adjusted member of the international community after Franco’s death?

I tried googling it and kept getting articles on why X law is basically worse than the Jim Crow era. I learned that my Grandfather was arrested and possibly charged when he was deployed in Georgia and I'm hoping to find some information on his status out of curiosity.

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The question is really about what happened to convictions. If you were convicted under, say, anti-miscegenation laws, are you still technically a felon? Or if you violated bus seating laws or whatever?

It seems like from the first crude cave paintings to the statues of lugals in Mesopotamia, that the goal was not a realistic depiction of the subject, but rather a stylized representation. As far as I can tell, truly realistic work didn't begin to appear till much closer to the common era, and it doesnt even particularly seem like ancient artists were trying to be realistic.

Are there any theories as to why it took humans so long to pursue realism in art? It seems like it would be an obvious target to represent what you see as accurately as possible. If I'm missing info or appearances of realism here, please correct me, I'm having trouble researching this.

Yesterday I went back to my old video game archive and replayed call of duty. In a mission, the player uses binoculars to spot and direct artillery strikes on Flak 88 guns. He does this by reporting the co-ordinates of his enemies from the roof using the binoculars. How is this possible? Did the troops really used this in the WWII? Thanks!

I already graduated college, but I want to learn more about history. I don't mean just reading history books (which I already plan to do) but how to argue a point, how to analyze a text, how to write at a scholarly, graduate level, etc. Basically the skills that you build through a degree at a good school in history.

I lack the money and time to go back for courses. With that in mind, what's the best way to do this on my own even if it's an imperfect approach?

I think I understand that East Berliners could travel freely to West Berlin until the Berlin Wall was erected to stop it, and continued to attempt to escape to West Berlin even after that. But once someone entered West Berlin, how did they then move to the West since they were still landlocked by East Germany? Were they given West German citizenship and flown out?

How is it to be explained that they never noticed its absence from their mathematics? How would they have expressed, for example, a 2:0 game result or a deduction of profit vs. losses? ("You got 3 apples and give 3 to your brother, etc. ...")

Are there plausible historical/archeological records for a war of this type?

While surfing on this subreddit I have seen the term "clean Wehrmacht" being used in regards to the political orientation of the German army during ww2. Is this a fitting description or is this a postwar myth?

Tried asking this a couple of months ago, didn't get a response, trying again.

It's been over 30 years since the publication of the book and airing of the documentary series. Is it still a reasonably good history of science and technology? Are there more recent books covering the same topics and ideas, e.g. how certain discoveries or technologies changed how a given society or culture understood or perceived the world around them?

If this question is completely inaccurate historically, please answer it in a way that’ll enlighten me.

So the bombs were supposed to be dropped August 3rd. However bad weather delayed the bombing of hiroshima to August 6th.

The US knew the soivets planned on attacking on August 15th but the USSR sped up the attack to the 9th because the wanted to get in on the action before Japan surendred due to the atomic bombings.

My question is did the US purposefully set teh date of the atomic bombing in early august in order to try and get Japan to surrender before th soviets got involved?

Thanks