Alternatively, was Disney's inclusion of this piece in their film at all controversial at the time?

Example: In large stretches of Africa, Southeast Asia, and the Middle East, if a woman is raped or assaulted, police officials, politicians, and religious leaders will stress that the whole mess could have been avoided if only the woman had stayed home in their appropriate sphere, gotten permission or escort from a male guardian, not strayed into a place where they could tempt men, etc, rather than focusing on changing the norms that allow the crime, or punishing the perpetrators.

Although western countries have their own fair share of problems in this area, women face far fewer of these issues than they do elsewhere.

Did a blame-the-woman approach once predominate in the west? If so, when and how did the west begin to move away from it?

I am reading Mary Beard's SPQR and at some point, she mentions that:

"Pompey has a good claim to be called the first Roman emperor. True, he has usually gone down in history as the man who finally supported the cause of the Republic against the increasingly independent power of Caesar, and so as an opponent of imperial rule. But his treatment in the East and the honours showered upon him (or which he contrived) closely prefigured many of the defining elements of the Roman emperor's image and status. It was almost that as if the forms and symbols of imperial rule that, a few decades later under Julius Caesar and even more his great-nephew, the emperor Augustus, became standard in Italy and Rome had their prototypes in Roman rule abroad [...]."

Later on, she mentions examples of the formation of his cult of personality and I couldn't help but wonder; What is the consensus on who laid first the foundation for the idea of an Emperor?

I have a graduate student who wants to incorporate historical research into her graduate thesis. This is not my area of expertise, and I want to guide her correctly. I asked a couple of historians in my university for readings on conducting historical research, but they weren't helpful for whatever reason.

I know that historical research is not the same as research methods in the social sciences. I know about primary sources and secondary sources and how they build off each other. However, I do not pretend to know how a historian begins with a research question and then decides how to proceed in pursuit of that answer, how they decide where to begin, the different archives or databases that historians draw from, the primary errors committed in historical research, etc.

She won't officially start this component until the fall so I have time to do some reading and (hopefully) guide her in the right direction. I would be very thankful to anyone who can offer any suggestions.

I’m writing a story that’s a bit like game of thrones but it’s more a historical fiction (please don’t stone me to death with reasons why things couldn’t go the way I want).

But anyway, I know that the Middle Ages spend for centuries so there’s different geographic and time period experiences. Answers that cover the general thing are welcome.

I want to be looking at Spain, both Christian and Moorish cultures during the High Middle Ages, specifically the 11th and 12th century because that’s the time period in my story.

Those of French, Occitan, Normans, Franks, Italians (I know the sense of Italy didn’t exist back then, I’m just saying cultures that live there), the Papacy as to what one would call a king or queen and vice versa, are welcome as well.

The Christians including Leonese, Castilians, Galicians, Portuguese (even though Portugal wasn’t a thing in the 11th century), Catalans, Aragonese, and Basque. Speech is among themselves, against a different culture but same faith and the Moors. Speech can be out of respect and demonizing can be included too.

The Moors include Andalusians and Berbers among themselves and the so called infidels, out of respect or dehumanizing.

Be advised that I’m also looking for formal and informal speech. Like would a Queen Mother call his son who’s king just son or his first name when private?

Thank you for your time.

Sorry if this is not the right place to ask about this, if you know a better subreddit I will gladly remove the post.

I wanted to ask you for a hand on a project for my university thesis of international history. The thesis focuses on the Brazilian security doctrine during the twenty years of dictatorship and how it set an example for the other Latin American countries that followed it in the second half of the twentieth century. I am looking, if possible, for the original documents issued during the fifth republic on the issue of "national security doctrine", in Portuguese but also in English, Spanish, French or Italian, there are no problems with the languages. If you know a site where I could find documents or similar, I would be extremely grateful. Grazie mille and have a great day!

The backstory for the killer's actions has him and his young daughter near death in the wilderness when they're found by a party of Mormons. The group agrees to take them in and give them a place to stay if they'll take up Mormon ways... and, if I recall correctly, threaten to murder them if they don't.

What follows is life in a community dominated by a specter of fear and oppression, and as she grows up the girl is forced to marry a man against her will, and her boyfriend is murdered.

Did Arthur Conan Doyle have weird prejudices, or were Mormons heavily demonized at the time?

I recently read a few translated memoirs from WWI and WWII, and started thinking about how there must be plenty of similar writings in German/Russian/whatever language that haven't been translated. Which lead me to wonder if there was some kind of typical way that someone doing research could not only get access to source material from a foreign country or in a foreign language, but get it translated as well.

I’m aware that the Entente was essentially compelled to add the clause if they wished to justify their reparation claims, but I’m unsure as to why Germany and even (at a later date) Wilson and George would have passed doubt as to Germany’s guilt? Germany literally began the hostilities. Why was there such outrage at the clause after the war amidst the population whereas there was very little in either Austria or Hungary?

Cyprus is host to a small community of Maronites that have been there for a long time. They speak a variety of colloquial Arabic. When did they first arrive in Cyprus, and what motivated them to go there?

Both the Marvel and DC comic book universes labor at continuity. Events in one comic book impact others. Large cross-over events determine plot lines across multiple titles. A shared set of rules more stringent than genre conventions limit and explain what can and can’t happen. Golden age comic stories tended to episodic. The events of one story seldom mattered much for a subsequent story. Storylines from one title seldom if ever effected another. Nor did titles produced by a publisher share conventions about things like alternate realities, time travel, how super hero powers work, magic, etc. When did the big 2 comic publishers start producing stories in self-consistent “universes”? Did the rise of fan communities play a role in this transition?

So I was perusing the Wikipedia about all this and it mentioned how the state governments were split between representatives of the population and senators of geographical regions within the states; just like how the federal government's senate was representatives of the state governments and the House of Representatives was for the population. Until the Supreme Court ruled against that arrangement in state governments.

Now, a federal government makes sense on the national level but why did the state governments try to copy it when the pre-independence colonial legislatures were unicameral (I could be dead wrong)

So what was the reaction to Nebraska's government change, and was there serious discussions among other states to follow their model?

(it just makes sense to me for state governments)

I can't find anything on such! Can someone answer, provide links sources & images? Thank you!!

So I've been reading about how ancient civilisations like the Greeks, Romans, Japanese etc. tolerated male homosexual relations and as far as I know, MSM is disproportionately more likely to transmit HIV/AIDs according to Wikipedia (WSW suffers from the problem too but it's more indirect). So did anyone from this civilisations recognise this problem and if so, how did they respond to it?