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Hey! I've just joined this subreddit in the hopes of having a questioned answered. I've been doing a lot of research on the Owain Glyndŵr (including looking into Henry IV by Shakespeare) and was wondering if the mythical history of Arthur and Glyndŵr overlapped at all? I know there's myth around both of them being folk heroes awaiting the call to return and liberate their people- would they have existed in the same mythological universe?

Is it true that rulers couldn't press woman's claims on a title against a man? Also is it true that women couldn't inherit even a minor title if there was a male heir? Mainly asking about Europe during 11th century.

I am writing an article about a woman who was a progressive figure in the 20s, a woman of compassion, known for her socially progressive attitudes. I have discovered that she was at least an implicit eugenics supporter.

I would like to understand her motivations better and give the full context behind her support of this obviously dangerous ideology. She was a physician, and she did extensive charitable work with disabled children. Her statements are mostly about "unfit" children. She did not support legislated sterilization programs. She did voice support for social problems to be "solved in the laboratories".

Any thoughts or pointers toward the best references for this subject would be appreciated.

Near the end of his life the famed folk musician Pete Seeger gave an interview where he lamented the fact that Americans don't sing together as a group nearly as often as they did when he was a child and young man (he was born in 1919). If I am recalling correctly he gave examples such as singing on family car rides, drinking songs, and religious events. I guess one could add camp songs to that as well. While obviously singing in church remains a vibrant affair in some traditions, in many others it is not (at my own church growing up hymns were strictly perfunctory). And I can't remember any bar I ever went to having an atmosphere welcoming to big drunken singing group, including probably one of the few honest-to-God community pubs that exists west of the Mississippi.

Is Pete Seeger correct in his estimation that Americans used to sing together much more than they do today? If so, why did Americans stop singing together?

I’ve seen some articles stating there were Black tribes originating from the US and being shipped out to and throughout Europe as slaves. I haven’t seen any sources within them, is there historical validity to this? If so why isn’t it ever discussed?

I'm thinking from the earliest days up until the fall of Rome mainly. Very curious about this.

Thanks you

My understanding is that the British were trying to deny the Boer guerillas the ability to hide amongst civilians and use their resources, so they rounded up all the civilians and conducted a scorched-earth campaign throughout the countryside. This led to tens of thousands of civilian deaths in the camps - partly due to disease, partly due to starvation (the Boers had been attacking supply trains). It is important to note that these were not the same camps that Nazi Germany would later use; their intended purpose was merely internment rather than extermination.

Anyway, my question is purely about the military aspect of the camps. Was this strategy effective in defeating the Boers, or was it inconsequential?

How much power did the controller of naval straits such as Bosporus exert over the trade through the strait itself? Would they be able to impose significant blockades against merchant ships of opposing powers?

From what I can find: Old English (Anglo-Saxon): 400s - 1066 Middle English: 1066 - 1400s Modern English: 1400s - present

Is there a concrete, identifiable reason why Middle English got shorted by 200 years? When will we be able to put a cap on Modern English and define a start to Post Modern English?

This is something I've always wondered because all maps of Roman Italy I've ever seen seem to be incredibly basic - just listing the main cities when lots of minor places like Falerii Novi would have existed (surely)...

So, before 300 AD when Rome was still pagan, would historians be able to accurately recreate the map of Roman Italy including MOST of its towns and cities that would have existed at the time?

Does any map to this level of detail exist anywhere or is this something no longer possible due to lost knowledge?

And if they can't, does this imply that lots of lesser Roman towns or hamlets may lie unburied and undiscovered under the ground?

I know "Viking" can be a bit of a loaded term, so let's specify that I am a Norse child from the early 10th century. My father is away raiding/exploring, and presumably it's the same for many of my peers.

What sorts of games would we play? What toys would we have? Would we receive any sort of structured education, or be mostly left to our own devices until we're old enough to apprentice?

Are the answers different for boys as for girls?

1. What was the average population/minimum population to be counted as a city?
2. How big were most cities
3. How big were the garrisons(how many soliders/police typically guarded them)

Asking because I'm curious how the slave economy of the Ottoman Empire worked, and what projects and businesses were purchasing such a large number of slave laborers. Attempting to dig into this online I've found most popular sources out there focus on harem, eunuch and janissary slaves and from my limited understanding these were not typical.

I feel like I can’t go a week without hearing someone bring up how they wished they’d been alive to experience the music and general aura of the 1950s (minus the racism yada yada yada). My question is: Did people in the past do the same? Did people in the 1920s reminisce about the 1870s (or other decades)? Did they also wish they had been alive to experience the music and culture of those times?

i guess another way to frame it is: "How were decimals and fractions expressed in the roman numerical system?"

Today's neo-nazis are fond of plausible deniability. They'll make an ok symbol or obfuscate their intent with codes like 88. Did Nazis % the past do this “hint-hint' style of communicating?

My logic is because the Qu'ran is still written in the same way it was originally at around 700AD an Arabic speaker from today should be able to at least have a limited conversation with someone from the past.

When did the knowledge about the holocaust by the nazis break into general knowledge around the world?

I’ve read lately several books in which at least a part of the story takes place during the late 1930’s or early 1940’s. Several of them have discussed about the holocaust as a reason to go to war with Germany. However, I have had the understanding that the topic was not widely discussed by the public before the war or during the early war years. Thus I’ve started to wonder if the authors are reflecting their later knowledge of the atrocities to explain wrongly the motivation of their main characters to advocate entering the war.

As I am most definetely not an expert on this area, it would be interesting to know more about it.