Hey guys I just want to know what ataturk thought about a free market economy was he for it or against or did he want a mixed market economy

"But all human efforts, all the lavish gifts of the emperor, and the propitiations of the gods, did not banish the sinister belief that the conflagration was the result of an order. Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judæa, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular. Accordingly, an arrest was first made of all who pleaded guilty; then, upon their information, an immense multitude was convicted, not so much of the crime of firing the city, as of hatred against mankind "

Many people say this was an interpolated passage by Christians themselves and that they made up the story of Nero presecuting Christians and they claim no church fathers ever mentioned the presecution under Nero (is that also true, did they really not?), and the other claim is that Tacitus was repeating the legends spread by Christians that Nero is the Antichrist . So I ask you, did Nero really presecute the christians?

Were there classes and lectures similar to what we have today? What sort of people attended university (age and social class wise)? Were there 'courses' and could one recieve qualifications from them?

I was watching The Breakfast club and at one point the guest Dr Umar Johnson claims that Buddha was black and his main reason for thinking this was early statues of Buddha. This is the video which I am referring to.

In the 20/30s songs had a structure where there would be an intro verse, with a totally different melody than the main body of the song. Why did this come about and why did it change?

Additional question: was/is this kind of structure found outside English language music?

I'm researching Greek Lore and this statue keeps popping up as a reference but I can't find anything more about it. Is it still around? Was it destroyed? It's annoying how it's on a good chunk of Ares related things but there's no other info that follows it. I can't even find pictures. Anyone know about this thing?

Were the battles basically tests of endurance, where most kills took place when someone became exhausted and allowed someone an easy opportunity at a weak point?

Hello historians of Reddit!

I was wondering if there is a basis for drawing comparisons between the Japanese Invasion of Korea in 1592 and the Spanish colonization of the New World. I don't have a very good understanding of Japanese politics before the Meiji Era, so please be kind to this question. I know Japan did eventually transform Korea into a colony, but I have no conception of this eventual colonization had the same objectives as the original expansion in 1592. On the surface it seems like these two different conquest have nothing in common, but hence my question.

Would Japan have treated Koreans in a similar fashion to how Spain ruled over Native Americans? Would they have imposed Shinto on Koreans? Would they have enslaved or otherwise forced Koreans into coercive labor systems? Would they have used their Korean colony as a springboard for future expansion into China or Siberia?

I guess I am wondering if the Japanese attempt to conquer Korea can be viewed as a chapter of a larger age of political expansion?

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Thank you

I am (I hope at least) somewhat aware of the allied occupation of germany, the Allied Control Council, and the eventual division of Germany. I am much less aware of how things stood in Italy after the end of the figthing. Did the allied government simply let the allied-aligned Italian government resume control until the formal peace treaty or did they set up their own occupation authorities?

I recently have seen a couple of people claim China has historically been an expansionist colonial power(during its imperial period), and since China has been colonized, any google search I do just talks about it being on the recieving end of colonialism.
I was wondering is anyone could expand on this, if it's true or a bit of a stretching of the truth (since the imperial dynasties obviously did some expansion).
Also if anyone has some info on the historical ethnic and cultural makeup of the modern region of China that'd be interesting, has that region always had such a massive Han majority?

I've heard many times people saying "He's like Hitler" and similar expressions about people they think are bad. Was there any other person before that who was considered the embodiment of evil, did they have other expressions, or did people use supernatural figures or something? To specify it a bit more, I'm thinking in Europe, or maybe limit it to the English language if there wasn't any common expression for all of Europe.

Killing retreating soldiers.... doesnt exactly seem like the honorable thing to do... where there any general codes about this? I just have this image of an invading army slaughtering people down to the last man even if its obvious they've already won.

Today, a whole day wasted grilling on the beach seems to be the ultimate idea if a well-spent vacation day for a lot of people. (At least in France) Were people as enthusiasts during the previous centuries. Would people travel long distances to spend a week on the beaches? I realise that paid vacation only arrived in 1936 with the "front populaire" so the common people would not be able to just stop working for a week before this. Yet, I suppose that wheathier people had more opportunities for leisure traveling. So did they enjoy just going to the beach ? When did it start ? Did the locals just enjoyed spending time on the beach ?

Since this and other incidents of racial violence (eg- Red Summer of 1919, ethnic cleansing of Mexican ranchers by the Texas Rangers, et al) went largely unmentioned throughout my entire education, I’ve been wondering more and more about the broader implications of such a label.

With the conference's last day afterparty at the hotel bar already behind us and our swag bags in hand, we now head to the front desk to pay our incidentals, check out, and return to boring normal life. As I look around I see new friends and old alike; a community of knowledge unparalleled and unprecedented. So as I cruise past u/gankom with a super cool high five, I also wish to express a sincere (social distanced) handshake and tip of my hat to everyone that put so much into this event. Y'all did something truly incredible and cutting edge. I wasn't sure it could be done, but was confident that if it could be done, this was the group that could do it. We are all better off from your efforts.

Thank you all so very much; you have my most sincere appreciation... And we'll see ya next year!

I have researched that sweet wines were the most popular in the Roman Empire (mostly on Wikipedia, but in these aspects it seems to be more trustable than in other, more controversial subjects), but what about in Medieval Europe? Was sweet wine still favored in regions that were once part of the Western Roman Empire? Was sweet wine favored in the Byzantine Empire? What about in England and France in the Late Middle Ages (I have a huge interest in these in the end of the Medieval Period thanks to the Hundred Years War)? I would be greatful if you could give both general information and more specific information about certain regions and time periods.

I was reading (as one does) about women's liberation in Canada, and while women won suffrage in Canada's provinces from 1916 to 1940, under some obscure law they apparently weren't considered "persons" for some purposes until a high court decision in 1929 involving "The Famous Five." What was that all about?