I came upon this topic after finding at the Canadian naval mounment in Halifax for those lost at sea during WWI and WII that there were naval personnel lost during 1947. Furthermore, the record of military deaths on the Canadian Government's website goes from 1939-1947. I could not find any record of battle or even accidents during 1947 in the Canadian military. Does anyone know what caused Canadian military deaths during 1947 and why these deaths are counted as deaths during WII even though the war ended in 1945?
2 Answers 2020-09-18
Today:
You know the drill: this is the thread for all your history-related outpourings that are not necessarily questions. Minor questions that you feel don't need or merit their own threads are welcome too. Discovered a great new book, documentary, article or blog? Has your Ph.D. application been successful? Have you made an archaeological discovery in your back yard? Did you find an anecdote about the Doge of Venice telling a joke to Michel Foucault? Tell us all about it.
As usual, moderation in this thread will be relatively non-existent -- jokes, anecdotes and light-hearted banter are welcome.
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This reply to a post,
"Although early English naval organization mirrored that around most of northern Europe, with a soldier as "captain" of a ship and a sailor as "master," the increasing specialization of the marine arts and the change from "land battle at sea" to actual naval warfare meant that the "tarpaulin" or seaman came to command ships, and, eventually, navies."
states that it was common to have a soldier as captain and a sailor as master.
What do these terms mean and why then were they combined into one position of "master and commander", and would it be a soldier or sailor who held that post ?
Thanks.
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I recently discovered the book The Last Men Of The Revolution, written in 1864, which consists of interviews with 6 Revolutionary War Veterans. However, those were the surviving veterans on the Union Side. What about the veterans on the other side? How many were still alive? What did they think about the Civil War?
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My two guesses would be that they either had poor organization and leadership or that discipline in the army was poor. Perhaps a combination of the two.
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This question was prompted by my finding this rather astonishing issue whilst reading through old Civil War newspapers online (as you do when you have no life). It's from the Chattanooga Daily Rebel which, as its name suggests, is very pro-confederate.
This article was published April 25 1865 and discusses what it calls the recent armistice between the two sides. The writer seems to be under the impression that the result of this armistice will likely be the independence of the Confederacy. He insists that it was asked for by the Union generals. He doesn't seem to believe that Lee has surrendered and he talks about the "flight at Petersburg" being "very disastrous to the enemy". The article also mentions the possibilty of the USA having to withdraw its troops in order to prevent revolution at home following the assassination of Lincoln.
Later reading aroung I found this article from The Tri-Weekly News in South Carolina. The Independence of the South-Is There a Cause fo Despondency. Wrtten in the aftermath of Lee's surrender it argues that France is about to intervene of behalf of the South in order to preserve Emperor Maximilian since the "grasping ambition of the Yankees" will leed them to conquer Mexico if they are pemitted to take over the South. This is, it believes, why the North has asked for a armistice (once again the writer seems to seriously belive that the armistice amounts to a victory for the South and has been agreed to from a position of Northern weakness). Just how seriously could people have taken such hopes?
Just how typical are these papers of attitudes in the south at this late date? Are they simply a case of an isolated refusals to see reality or were these sorts of attitudes and optimism common in the south?
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It seems to me that at least in normal conversation conducted by private citizens in english speaking countries, particularly north America, Britain and the rest of the commonwealth that we lay the blame solely on Germany, and Austria is hardly ever blamed. Why do we do this? Why do we associate the war with the germans and not the Austrians, and why is there no concerted effort to at least allow a moderate correction to the general consensus that Germany did indeed cause the wars?
Not german, nor do i have any emotional connection to the issue, but it just seems bizarre how this came about, I understand though that interms of damages caused by the war, Germany was far more equipped than Austria to "dish it out", but it kind of seems weird that we just blame the germans all the time. Even r/historicalmemes made a meme mocking the fact that, Austria gets away with it.
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I am watching Master & Commander (the Russel Crowe movie) and one thing that has struck me is that several of the officers on the ship are children. While I did know that children often served in Napoleonic navies as powder monkeys and the like, I was wondering if having children officers something that happened and, if so, if it was common.
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I heard a while ago that when einstein formulated his theories of genera relativity, he actually thought they had to be wrong because they basically predicted black holes and he himself thought that such a weird thing couldn't possibly exist (and that he kept believing the rest of his life).
Is this just one of the many myths surrounding einstein or is it based on something real?
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Are there any marks we can point to that support modification? What was he supposed to have modified on the mask?
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Was there any legalized system in any medieval european nation that encoded how a duel was to be conducted?
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This was mostly under the emperor Tiberius.
The coins are stamped with a wide variety of sexual positions on one side and a number between one and sixteen on the other.
What's up with these coins? Why are they so different from what came before and after? What should we make of the numbering of 1-16?
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I often hear that while crossing the Alps Hannibal lost many men as well as animals and equipment, while crossing the mountains to catch Rome by surprise is usually regarded as genius I cannot help but wonder if perhaps Hannibal could have saved himself a lot of trouble if he had simply entered in by more conventional means. While I understand the value of surprise losing resources crossing mountains like that does seem potentially wasteful. Does anything seem to believe that those men and material he lost would have been better served entering Rome conventionally and fighting or does the idea that taking a risk on the mountains as a brilliant maneuver hold?
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In 1347 the Black Death arrived in Europe aboard ships coming from Asia, and we all know how it devastated Europe. What happened in Asia? I have never actually heard much regarding its impact in Asia.
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I have a basic understanding of history, but I often think about this question. What made Constantine move the capital from Rome to Byzantium, instead of staying and protecting it from the encroaching Barbarians? I understand Byzantium would make a better capital, but that wouldn’t exactly be ideal to move the capital when the other one is in danger, and risking the western part of your empire to fall into enemy hands?
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