I know that "Russia" did not exist per se, but the Rus' and other kingdoms did exist and they were in the direct path of the Mongol encroachment. Yet I've heard nothing about their experiences. Did they fight? Surrender? Assimilate?

As far as I know, Austria was split between the Allies immediately following WWII. Why did the Soviets establish a long term Socialist State in Germany but not in Austria?

Are we just so exposed to Shakespeare I'm misjudging how different it is, or is there something going on here?

I'm not asking about today's political situation, to be clear. I'm wondering what happened over the past century and a half that make today's political situation even an option.

The show started in 1965 and ran into the early 1970s. At that time, WWII veterans would have likely been in their 40s and 50s, squarely in the target age demographic for a network TV show, and the show was a relatively big hit for its time, so I assume that a large portion of war vets were aware of it, if not regular watchers.

Was the show seen in any way as disrespectful? Did it cause any controversy amongst veterans' groups? Or on the opposite end, did any veterans (especially POWs) see it as a positive for opening up discussions with their families about the war?

I find it fascinating that such a solemn topic could be treated so lightly in such close proximity to the end of the actual war. I can't imagine the same kind of show being made about the Vietnam War in the 1980s or 1990s, for example.

I've taught a reasonable amount of Victorian and some Regency literature and have casually read a decent amount of non academic history of the Victorian and Regency eras. A common trope I've seen is of a rakish character or a spendthrift couple running up huge debts with various vendors (especially tailors) and basically just not paying. Sometimes the character is shown as dying in penury but at other times they just seem to carry on in the same style as always, just ignoring or stringing along the vendors who provide their goods and services. What's more this seems to be seen as if not typical at least not unusual.

Was this sort of casual attitude toward payment for goods and services on the part of the upper classes an actual thing?

I always found it odd that after about 1600 Spain's colonies (New Granada, New Spain, etc) appear to not have any impact on geopolitics. By 1700 more people lived in Spanish New World possesions than Spain proper. Yet Spain seems to be something of a second rate power and I have never heard of any giant army of Colonials being raised, and apparently the Treasure fleet wasn't very rich either. What was going on in these colonies that they did very little to help Spain?

How did contemporary politicians justify this?

Hi r/askhistorians, i would like to read some of the original Soviet documents about the Spanish civil war, where would be a good place to look?

Thanks!

Like why are leaders called wizards or where do words like "klecktoken" come from. Why was the K chosen as their favorite letter.

I read up a bit on this and the number is more like 68% according to Stackexchange, due to a multitude of factors.

So, a kinda stupid question I think: What were the numbers for other years in the period, 1921, 22, 24, 25?

Were they similar? Were they comparatively a bit or much better? Because referring to this one year may mean that it was the worst one.

Ok, this is a reformulation of a previous post, that I had to delete because I couldn't change the title.

The main question here is, did the slaves have a minimal law status that protected them against the most vicious practices?

For example, were the slaves owners allowed to organise spectacles where two of their slaves fought to death? In case of being allowed, was it common? And more examples like that could be considered.

And going a bit further, is there any documented case of a slave owner that treated in a more "humanely" way to their slaves (fed them well, worried about their health, etc.)? Even with a selfish goal (making them more productive, for example).

Edit: u/AncientHistory sorry about the previous mistake, I would like if you consider this post better that the previous one. Anyways, thank you for your advices!

I swear I read in high school that Spain gave England land to form the American colonies but I can’t find any reliable source that says this. I assume they did, as the east coast is a straight shot from Spain, but can someone confirm this?

Let's say someone sees me sneak a sword into the city of Rome. Who do they tell about it to officially get me accused of a crime by the state? Who tells me I'm being accused of a crime, and what happens to me when I am? What happens to me after the trial?

I tried posting this in r/explainlikeimfive but they didn’t allow it. I’m curious on things like how and why it happened, key figures, how it was overthrown, what the quality of life was like for the common people during the time (as in, were people very afraid? was it a violent time?). Thanks!

I saw a meme saying that "In 1933 Hitler appointed Herman Goring Minister of the Interior. His first orders were to defund and eliminate the police departments so that they would not interfere with his Brown Shirts." This is not something I've heard before, is there any truth to it? In a non soapboxy way (if that's possible) are there any genuine parallels to now?