Having lived in Brazil, the lack of black people is one of the first things I've noticed about the southern cone. Argentina had slavery, and iirc 20% of Buenos Aires was black in colonial times, so what happened to them? Argentina today has less black people than the UK, my Argentine mother even has a stark memory of the first time she saw a black man in real life. How did the Southern Cone countries seemingly "disappear" their African diaspora? Interbreeding, or something more ominous?
2 Answers 2019-06-17
I'm down a wikipedia hole and currently reading about the Angevin Empire.
It seems the Empire was made up of the Kingdom of England, some Dukedoms in France, and various vassal and tributary states.
What I don't understand is how some of the land that formed part of the Angevin Empire was also part of the Kingdom of France, and how on earth that worked politically, economically, etc.
The rulers of the Angevin Empire also seemed to spend most of their time in their territories in France where presumably the French King outranked them. Why not England where they were King?
Is the hierarchy dependant on where they're located at a given point in time, or the subject of the issue at hand, or just the political climate of the day?
This one quite had me quite perplexed as to how the whole thing was meant to work.
Henry II couldn't capture Toulouse proper since his overlord, King Louis VII of France, was himself part of the defence...
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If not, why not? And if so, what do we know about the German attempts to crack it?
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EDIT: LotR, not the hobbit. My bad!
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Why did not civilization spread outside of the Roman Empire during antiquity and spread rapidly during the middle ages? Places in modern day Germany and Netherlands were relatively backward during Roman times, but become very developed with high level of urbanization during middle ages.
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In all most all situations the spear is superior to the sword
Is there eny specific weapon to counter the spear?
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If indeed other religions do refer to Jesus, how is he represented, and what is the context for this representation (eg: developed in the 10th C due to...)?
Much appreciated.
1 Answers 2019-06-17
It seems - and correct me if I'm wrong - to be a uniquely US thing, at least for non title holders. Kings and dukes etc in Europe are given regnal numbers, but usually in relation to their first names. It's Henry IV, V and VI not Henry Lancaster, Henry Lancaster Jr and Henry Lancaster III.
As a side note, I don't recall ever seeing an example of this tradition being extended after "Name III" - are there any notable examples of "Name IV" etc?
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From what I know the language is based on either Old Italic script or an Etruscan script. There is this Etruscan Helmet (Negau Helmet B) from 160 BC which had the Germanic named Harigast carved in it, which could indicate it was this alphabet the runes were based on. Germanic mercenaries bringing the old italic script to their homelands is also a very likely.
Anyways, what was the origin of the runic alphabet and what caused it to spread? Do we know how long it took before it was spread across the lands of the Germanic tribes?
Bonus questions:
Were the old Italic script and Etruscan script still in use by the time the Romans first encountered the Germanic peoples? Or am I wrong to assume that it was via the Romans or Etruscans that they got this script? Did the Gauls play any role in this? The helmet I mentioned earlier was found with other helmets which had Celtic inscriptions in it, with the same alphabet however.
Do we have any indication of the amount of Germanic peoples that were literate in this runic alphabet? If not, what would be a reasonable guesstimation?
If the Old Italic and Etruscan script were the inspiration, wouldn't this mean that the Germanic tribes had writing roughly a century before Tacitus wrote Germania? Weren't the Germanic tribes described as being illiterate in this book? Was it the case of the Romans not knowing that they had a script, simply not caring, or just old fashioned Roman propaganda?
I understand that some of these questions might be impossible to answer because the Germanic people really hated writing things down despite having a script. Thanks in advance!
Here is an article with photos of the helmets I mentioned: https://balkancelts.wordpress.com/2014/03/14/the-negau-inscriptions/amp/
1 Answers 2019-06-16
I was reading about the Town-class cruisers (specially Belfast), and came across something that confused me. The successors of the Towns, the Crown colonies and Minotaurs don’t seem to offer any particular advantage over the Towns. In fact the later Towns, like Belfast, were larger and more capable. So this brings me to my question...
Was there any significant difference, combat or otherwise, between the Town-class, Crown Colony-class, and Minotaur-class cruisers?
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I’m a future cultural anthropologist who doesn’t know too any books on the subject. Any suggestions?
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I have heard it said that this was the case. If this is indeed true, what did the Native Americans drink (particularly the big civilizations, like the Aztecs or Incas)?
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What were socialistic aspect of nazism? Did nazists control the market, the means of production? Did they try to address to issues of lower class in industrial world? How? Did they try to enhance any rights of the lower class, e.g. enforcing minimal wage, parental leave, universal healthcare, forbidding firing without notice, etc.
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It would seem that there were enough horses for most soldiers, and I’d expect that a horse would be cheaper than the armor used by the soldiers (maybe)
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Has anybody here asked about the whole idea from people like Robert Schoch or Graham Hancock? I may have it a bit off but as far as I know, they’re saying things like the Sphinx is much older than the age we’ve currently accepted. Also there could have been a civilization with advancements we don’t even have today that was taken out sometime like around the ice age? Idk just thought this would be the place for a genuine discussion abut the topic if there’s one to be had.
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