I'm studying Roman and Sasanian interactions and scholars often mention how Shapur I was very successful in capturing cities during his campaigns in the 250's AD, but for some reason didn't retain any of those positions.

However, the son Hormizd I is said to be King of Armenia from 253 (after Shapur established him there) until 270. I feel like I'm missing something, since this sounds a lot like Shapur I retaining Armenia until 270 after his 250's campaign?

Thanks!

A character in Designated Survivor talked about how someone was sentenced to 60 or 70 years, noting how it was ten times the length of the average sentence for a murder at the same time period. I feel like the average sentence wouldn’t have been so radically reduced so recently. Is there a database for average sentence lengths for specific crimes by year or decade?

As the title says, how was the nomadic horse culture brought over to the Mongols? Was it peaceful trade over the centuries, conquest, assimilation by other peoples?

Did they acquire the horse culture after contact with the Indo-European steppe nomads who migrated to Central Asia and western Mongolia such as the Andronovo cultures, Scythians and Tocharians? Or was it a later influence by (proto) Turkic peoples that gave the Mongols their horses based culture and war strategies? Was Metallurgy introduced around the same time to the Mongols as well?

Bonus points if you answer the same question for Turkic people.

Thanks in advance!

I am looking for information on how the government if the PRC and CPC work. I know it is complicated and tangled, but I hope someone has tried to make it comprehensive. I'm particularly interested after the Cultural Revolution.

If this isn't historical enough, please direct me to a more appropriate place. Thank you!

I have in my possession a letter marked May 25th, 1917 sent (possibly) from Theodore Roosevelt to a certain Frederick Meagher (living in Vancouver Washington). The letter is five pages long and seems to be regarding President Wilson’s refusal to allow the Rough Riders to be re-assembled for WW1. Who should I contact about it?

I’ll include a link to the pictures tonight after work. Thanks everybody!

I was reading Roger Crowley's history of Venice, and it mentioned how earlier in the middle-ages, galley-oarsmen were proud, skilled workers, with reasonably good social status, like artisans or the like. But by the 16th century, it was prisoners, slaves, and similar low-status people who rowed, what happened to cause this transition?

Not sure if this is right, even. Could someone help me?

How were soldiers with repeating rifles deployed on the battlefield, and how were they expected to fight? I know that soldiers were trained to operate as single, cohesive units, which meant they primarily fought elbow-to-elbow in tightly closed formations. Given the widespread use of Napoleonic tactics during the Civil War, how did repeating rifles affect the structure and tactics of infantry units during that time?

I know that the M1 Garand was the main battle rifle of the United States military during World War II, but many soldiers were issued different kinds of weapons, such as the M1A1 Thompson and the M3 Grease Gun. Other soldiers were issued M1A1 Carbines and shotguns. My question is, which soldiers were given these alternative weapons, rather than a standard M1 Garand, and why?

E.g. Arthur Koestler at Camp Vernet, besides the Spanish Republicans etc. It seems like such figures would have been clear allies.

Dear interbellum historians in the years leading up to the Second World War, did France ever consider an preemptive strike against Italy?

and is unwilling to listen to historians "because they're not economists"

I'm thinking specifically a river that would bisect a trench line.

I’m curious about somebody with lifelong hearing deficiency, not somebody who loses their hearing due to age. What would communication have been like? Is there any historical record of deaf rulers? Was it treated differently in Europe vs Asia? How long would it take them to notice a baby or child is deaf?

I’ve seen references that it was started in the late Tang Dynasty and ubiquitous by the Ming. I’ve always heard that the Mongol invasion pushed more people in to it. But I can’t find much on what it was like in between. During the Song Dynasty:

Was it restricted to the upper class?

Were those women pushed in to it?

Did it happen when they where children?

How scandalous would it be for an upper class women to not have bound feet?

Was it practiced by the Han Chinese women in the Liao and Jin territories?

And how did it change from the beginning to the end of the period?