I've searched the best I could in this sub, I've seen this asked a few times with no answers given. So, was there a special plan if Hitler was captured? Or was there just a blanket Trial order for all higher ups captured?

Particularly political prisoners, were they exonerated or kept in prison?

In my history class right now we are learning about Herbert Hoover and booming 20's. The book is saying that free market capitalism caused the great depression and mentions things like Easy credit, Overproduction, stock market crash. I was just wondering if it would be accurate to say that free market capitalism caused the Great Depression and if not then what were that main factors that did cause the great depression. Sorry if this wasn't written very well. Any video links or articles would be nice too. Thank you

Particularly how would I even contact a witch or warlock if I, say, wanted to contact the dead or speak with other spirits? I guess I'm asking because of the story in the old testament "The witch of Endor" where a spirit is brought back from the dead to counsel Saul. What kind of traits did a witch or warlock have? How would I even know? What kind of magical items would they use? Were there any spells or incantations that were common? I'm trying not to be too broad, so I will stop there.

Napoleon abdicated on 6 April, 1814 having suffered huge military losses and being unable to raise additional conscripts from his own country to fight off the coalition's advance. But after returning to power in 1815, he somehow managed to raise 280,000 in a very short amount of time to take on the new coalition.

Where were these French troops coming from, and why weren't they available to Napoleon when he desperately trying to raise troops to defend Paris the year before?

I am asking specifically about the South of the US... I assume an illegitimate child wouldn't have the right to any of the white privileges, but if the child survived the young age, how would their life typically develop?

IIRC, there's hardly any documents we have from ancient Carthage, and the Romans wrote of Carthage as the pinnacle of evil and Rome's destined foe, like in the Aeneid. So where does information on Carthage come from?

I am a Hobbes scholar and I am working on an extract where Hobbes raises a discussion by Cicero. I have two questions that I am struggling to find an answer to. 1 is, who is this Cassius? Is it Gaius Cassius Longinus or someone else? 2 is, where in Cicero is this discussion? Any help on either would be amazing. This is the original extract -

"Cicero maketh honourable mention of one of the Casii, a severe judge amongst the Romans, for a custom he had in criminal causes (where the testimony of the witnesses was not sufficient) to ask the accusers: cui bono?" (1ch47, Leviathan)

In his Latin edition he changes this slightly to:

"“Cicero somewhere makes honourable mention of a certain Roman praetor, Cassius, because in deciding criminal cases, when the testimony was not sufficient, he was accustomed to ask the accuser for what advantage the accused acted. […] For being a prudent man he thought that no one is evil gratuitously, but that whatever a person does voluntarily, he does for the sake of some good for himself. […] Therefore we shall use the same criterion to seek out the authors of doctrines which for so long now have disturbed the peace of Christian commonwealths: For what Profit?”

Thanks!

I'm fairly familiar with what they did when they got there, but how exactly did, say, the Abraham Lincoln brigade get to Spain? Was it individuals and small groups getting there however they could, or was there any more organization to it?

Hi all. I've been looking into the British opium trade and have been mildly surprised that all the information I've found refers only to the trade from India into China. While I understand that the Opium Wars dominate discussion on this topic, it seems odd to me that the British wouldn't have tried to expand the trade to other countries, given the profitability in China.

How would've the United States fare against the Wermacht if the USSR and UK were neutral.

Hello,

I'm in my final term of college and taking a Honors Modern European History class. I'm writing my term paper on why the 20th century was the bloodiest century in terms of genocide. I've been looking for books but haven't been able to come across one broad book that talks about various genocides. I've only found books that focus on one specific genoicde such as the Holocaust, Armenian Genocide, or Srebrenica.

The angle I'm wanting to take is that while nationalism was arguably the main contributing factor for genocide, the technological advancements of the 20th century made it possible to kill large numbers of people with ease.

Any help would be appreciated! Thanks.

I know back then there would be few obese people, most military age men were in sufficient health.

But for the few men who were honestly too obese to be in the trenches and fighting, what would happen to them and how were they treated by others? Treated poorly because their fitness level means they arent as helpful in the war?

Thanks

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Did people in the middle Ages ever uncover dinosaur bones?

If so, could this have inspired the notion of Dragons within the Medieval Folklore?

Recently, I came upon a source, treating the time period of the late 1930s and early 1940s and the Winter War in particular, that differentiated between "regular" infantry and "conscript" infantry of the Red Army. I was under the impression that the Red Army was a conscription army for the entirety of its existence. Was there any military personnel, especially in the infantry (discounting command and technical staff and specialized professions in other branches), that was not composed of conscripts? If so, would any of these qualify in any greater sense for being referred to as "regular" than the conscripted infantry? Or, conversely, was there any conscripted military personnel that was in any sense less "regular" than regular infantry, even if regular infantry was also conscripted? Perhaps "levies" of reservists? What distinction could be meant here?

I know those are 2 completely unrelated periods of time, but they're both legal systems where the judiciary explicitly or implicitly favored the powerful: the Romans ascribed more weight to the assertions of the wealthy than the poor, and while an Icelandic court might be able to levy small fines and declare outlawry on a guilty party, it was up the aggrieved to actually extract "justice"/revenge (along his allies, benefactors, friends or family, which the wealthy probably had in abundance and of which the poor had few). And that's not even getting into whether or not the aggrieved will be able to "get his (usually his) day in court".

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Was there ever a time where say it was Tuesday in Berlin but Saturday in Japan?

Unlike calendars, what particular day of the week it is is completely arbitrary with no basis in objective reality. How did the whole world come to collectively agree that it's a certain day of the week?

Between the high altitudes of the Rockies and the scarce water in the desert, I’m sure this was no easy feat during the westward expansion. How did families and individuals with horses and carts navigate and cross these regions?