If we look at the American revolution, one of its causes was Britian's restriction on expansion. Hence through manifest destiny, the United States got so big. So how did Canada get so big (coast to coast), despite being a colony for much longer and therefore forced to abide by the same restrictions?

Basically to clarify when did countries stop invading each other to get land and start selling it to one another?

I've been searching through Google for an answer but I can't find casualties broken down by race in America during WWI. Were such statistics even taken?

There's evidence that Blacks, at least in the South, were drafted despite physical/medical conditions which disqualified Whites. Therefore, I'm thinking the percentage of fatalities vis a vie Whites would be higher. If that's true, the next step will be to look for evidence that Black units were sent on more dangerous missions than their White counterparts. Depending on what I find, I will draft a thesis for a paper I have to write. I'm also curious to see if there's a difference in mortality rates in other American people of color during WWI.

​

Can anyone point me in the right direction for where I can find information online? I have been looking but I don't even know if this data exists.

​

So I’m looking up home made dog food recipes and I wonder what did people do before kibble? All of these websites are like make sure your dog gets all the nutrients he needs to be healthy by adding all of these supplements. It would be much easier if I could just toss the pooch a plate of whatever we had for dinner. Dogs and cats have been companions throughout history. What were they fed? Was their health negatively impacted by this diet?

Could somebody recommend me a book where slavery and politics aren't the main theme? I understand that it was an important part of the Southern culture at the time, but I'm more interested in the daily lives of people.

How similar were they in terms of architecture, military, etc.

So I was reading a passage from a Russian laborer in 1876 and they mentioned the phrase “as automatically as a robot”. How would they know the definition of robot, though, if they did not know what a robot was? The first instance of the use of robot in modern sense was in 1920, and it traditionally in Russian mean’t a poor laborer-could that be it? It’s a passage from Praskovia Ivanovskaia and Galina Cheriavskia, and part of it is as follows; “At four in the morning, as the sun's rays were just beginning to spill over the steppe, the overseer would wake us, kicking the legs of those who wouldn't get up immediately.... In the morning, we froze from the bitterly cold dew, which drenched our clothing up to the waist. Staggering along, still half asleep, we worked as automatically as robots, gradually warming up a bit.”

Another question: Would soldiers get rewards like extra rations or a bonus if they captured a horse and its rider?

I have a question that I’ve not been able to find the answer to. Why do people when they enter the underworld want to pay Charon to cross the river? Is it less painful on the other side? I’m confused. Thanks.

Apparently a TV show portrays him as gay. And I've seen posts claiming he is gay (mainly on Instagram and tmblr) being naturally skeptical I decide to dig into it my self; however, I couldn't find any scholarly sources talking about this, only popular media cites. Without the time to go more in-depth I decided to turn to you guys. So was he gay?

Before I start, sorry for formatting. You've spotted the mobile user.

This has been a bit of a puzzler for me for a while. I read someplace that the Ancient Egyptians had a simplified version of hieroglyphics used for every day writing, and somewhere nearby to the Pyramids or Sphinx, a slave had written the equivalent of "I was here" in said written language. Which begs the question, how literate were slaves and peasants in ancient and classical societies? I know throughout the middle ages and clear through a lot of the modern age ( in Europe, at least), being able to read was a sign of high education, and was usually reserved for clergy or scribes and administrators, but was that similar in, say, ancient Babylon? Was there a crude version of cuneiform that some raunchy Babylonian peasant used to write the equivalent of a smutty book on some clay tablet someplace?

inb4 someone decided to ignore me, I'm already aware of all the interesting graffiti around Pompeii, the Varangian guard inscriptions, "this is very high" and all that. This is a question for historians, not random redditors who are looking for their moment of glory trying to slide in with their TIL moment.

Thanks in advance for all the answers! I'd love sources to research this myself!

Empires like the Gökturk, Seljuk, and Mongol Khaganates explode into large realms in lightning-fast timeframes, often in 30 years or less. However, they all lasted for seemingly brief periods of time, often shorter than 100 years, while similarly grand sedentary empires like the Han dynasty, the Ming dynasty, the Ottoman Empire, the Russian Empire, and the Roman Empire all lasted upwards of 200 years. Some sedentary Empires like the Frankish Empire had a similar supernova-like existence, but they seem to be the exception rather than the rule. Why do Nomad empires come into existence and disappear so quickly?