For example, Kelly's armor absorbed no less than 18 bullets before he was finally brought down by multiple shots to the legs.

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Edit: Apologies for the typo.

How did relations between the US and the british improve after the rebellion? What was the turning point that eventually made them into such strong allies and how did this happen?

edit: title should be *hostile former colony

How often did panning for gold work?

I am doing this for a school project. Additionally, if you have a source, that would be great.

When the Jewish people were being rounded up by the Nazis to be sent to concentration camps etc, was there a lot of work done by the state to ensure that the correct people were being rounded up? For example, are there any cases where someone was sent to the camps who wouldn't have been regarded by the Nazi state as an enemy and thus sent in error? How did they identify who was Jewish and who wasnt, was just case of checking national records? Lastly was there any Jews who actually avoided being sent away by pretending to be other religion etc?

I can't find anywhere without having to sign up and or pay money, any ideas?

From my understanding, few very in the early 1980s thought the stability of the USSR was in serious doubt.

Within a decade, though, the entire system collapsed from within and soon ceased to exist altogether. What factors led into this - economic, social, or otherwise?

As a follow up question, were there any political analysts that did predict the end of the USSR early on, and how were they received at the time?

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Does anyone know any good primary sources about vikings relating to trade. If they are centered around denmark that would be nice but any sources referencing viking trade will do

I have been reading a few journal articles on the subject but I have not really found any information as to what these treaties entailed for these two developing nations. It seems the two nations relationship with Britain takes the forefront. Any information or resources would be greatly appreciated.

What did these two nations want from the treaties and did they receive it?

I have a hard time understanding how so many languages descend from proto-indo-european.

My latin teacher explained that the proto-indo-europeans where the first people to ride horses, therefore they were able to travel very far, and they were admired by everyone they encountered because they were riding horses. he said its because of this PRESTIGE that the language expanded.

I find this to be a very dissatisfying answer.

How did proto-indo-european language spread??

my main question is this- was there a time when all peoples throughout indo-europe spoke THE SAME proto-indo-european language before the languages diverged? like how all people in the roman empire spoke the same latin before it diverged into the 5 romance languages.

or did proto-indo-european just INFLUENCE many separate languages in indo-europe?

I hope my question is clear- was proto-indo-european once ONE language that was spoken ACROSS the ENTIRETY of the lands that now have languages that descend from proto-indo-european?

In the book he seems to really love this place, he seems relieved when he mentions that the Queen surrendered on the condition that the city was allowed to continue as it was, and Kublai accepted, but Marco has a tendency to exaggerate things so, was Guangzhou really a society that cared for every citizen to such a degree?.

PD: He also mentions that he read the letter of the Queen surrendering, that he held it in his hand and read it to Kublai, this seems perfectly plausible so I mostly believe it, but if any of you can confirm it I would sleep better at night

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Since 6M people got killed, how come there weren’t any fights between those who were picked up to be sent to the camps and the germans? Or were there but have they been forgotten by history?

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Did everything have individual price tags that a cashier had to manually add together?

In a lot of depictions of WW1 compared to WW2, WW1 always seems to appear much more horrific and terrifying, compared to WW2 which everyone seemed much more prepared for. Was WW1 actually that much worse then WW2?

I skimmed the FAQs and I didn't see anything that answered this, but if there was my apologies ahead of time if I missed it.

So I know that parts of the Bible are pulled from many different texts written in multiple different languages over centuries. Can we say for certian that we know all the texts have been translated correctly? Or has it been altered either on purpose to make people believe a certian thing, or on accident due to lack of linguistics in the past and mistranslation? I mean the Bible has to have been translated a lot in the past from Roman, Hebrew, Greek, ect. I just find myself doubting its been translated correctly wholly sometimes.

Odyssey is full of malaka in all shapes and forms. If I remember right, the Greeks in Origins used it but also used other awesome swear words such as koprophagos or metrokoites.

What is the reason we don’t hear these in Odyssey? Is it because they were really in vogue in the Hellenistic period but not so much in Classical Greece? Or it was purely an artistic decision and/or the fact that different studios worked on the games?

After reading about Mussolini, I think it was the failure to find and support a middle ground that really allowed Mussolini to take over the Italian government. What are your thoughts?

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