In Medieval times the kings ruled over kingdoms and they often gave pieces of land to lower rank nobles, but how exactly were they divided? Were kingdoms divided by duchies, duchies divided by marches, marches divided by counties and counties divided by baronies (or whatever the order is)? Or could they be completely separate territories inside a kingdom without one being inside the other? I'm having a hard time visualizing this division and how things worked between those territories.

Also, is there any good book with info on this and on Medieval nobility ranks?

Thank you so much!

I'm interested in all areas of the Second Word War and this obviously covers the Pacific region and obviously British possessions such as India and Burma. My question is this; why is there so little documentation or footage of British operations in the region? There's a lot of American footage of all sorts in the region but little else apart from some Japanese stuff. So was it that British attention was closer to home, such as in the case of the 14th Army (The Forgotten Army) in Burma? Or merely that the Americans had a greater number of camera's and willingness to film in this region, especially due to the greater importance to them?

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Despite its misleading name, I believe that the Meiji Restoration and the events following it in the Meiji Period were more of a revolution than a restoration for Japan. From what I have seen, this seems to be the general consensus as well. I understand why it is called the restoration (because the Emperor was reinstated) but I am wondering are there any sources/ authors/ schools of thought that argue that it was, indeed, a restoration?

Thank you!

When Elizabeth I died, the King of Scotland James VI became King on England and Scotland. Does that mean Scotland conquered England?

Hi! I’m finding myself a bit lost for a paper in my history class in college and I can’t find a good source to answer my question for good.

What were Britain’s interests/objectives in the anglo-soviet agreement on the 12th of july 1941?

While it seems to me that Britain’s interest in the beginning of WW2 was also a lot focused around its empire, which was threatened by the Axis forces in Asia and the Middle-East (and Mediterranean?). However, with operation Barbarossa that started not long before july 1941, why would Britain sign an agreement with the USSR since the soviets were doing most of the fighting in the east and distracting the Germans? Was it to protect its colonies? I can’t find a reliable history source that answers my question!

In the seventies there were calls for everything from: legalization of narcotics, end to the draft.

What more did they want?

Simon Jenkins for the Guardian:

"History may yet regard the handling of a defeated and depressed Russia in the 1990s as like its handling of Germany after 1918."

Seumas Milne for The Guardian:

“The crisis in Ukraine is a product of the disastrous Versailles-style break-up of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s.”

If so, does the following hold true as well?

Tony Wood on Novara Media:

"The Revanchist, bristlingly hostile Russia that we see now is the outcome of NATO expansion."

When I was in school I remember learning about segregation, and how black peolpe were not allowed in certain places (or sections of places), but what I'd like to know what (if any) degree of punishment there was for white people who defiantly entered "Colored Only" establishments, or using drinking fountains restrooms, etc. designated as "Colored Only".

While talking with my wife this morning, she brought up an interesting question. What were the demographics of Nixon voters? Was it the stereotypical male WASP or was there the beginning of the "soccer Mom" demographic? What were their issues? Economy? Vietnam? Crime? Did either of these differ between the three elections?

We were both children at the time so we thought it'd be interesting to find out. Thanks in advance!

Edit: Thanks to /u/Salami_on_rye for reminding me of Nixon's first run.

I read about europeans taking diseases from home to america during colonisation, which was one of main reasons why new world civilisations were decimated, but what with diseases new for europeans? Did they affected them with equal strength? Did it happened in Asia (specialy in Japan which was somehow isolated) and Africa?

I'm having trouble finding information on the Ikko Ikki, the "Single-Minded Leagues" of Pure Land Buddhists of Japan during the Sengoku Jidai, especially since I don't speak or read Japanese.

All I can gather is that they were leagues of Pure Land Buddhist monastic orders with support from commoners and some noble families who took up arms, conquered a province and ruled it for almost a century, threatened Kyoto itself, and were eventually destroyed by Oda Nobunaga. And they weren't the only armed monastic orders.

So why did so many monks take up arms and fight in this era? Were defenseless monasteries under attack? Were Pure Land Buddhists driven to war by persecution, or did their sect of Buddhism call for proselytizing by force from the beginning? And how did the monks govern the lay people in their lands?

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Google isn't helping

On the first day of Christmas my true love sent to me

A partridge in a pear tree.

On the second day of Christmas my true love sent to me

Two turtle doves

And a partridge in a pear tree.

On the third day of Christmas my true love sent to me

Three French hens,[5]

Two turtle doves,

And a partridge in a pear tree.

Subsequent verses follow the same pattern, each adding one new gift and repeating all the earlier gifts so that each verse is one line longer than its predecessor:

4 calling birds

5 gold rings

6 geese a-laying

7 swans a-swimming

8 maids a-milking

9 ladies dancing

10 lords a-leaping

11 pipers piping

12 drummers drumming

What would be the total cost of said gifts? (assuming the humans in the verses are rented for Christmas time, not literally bought)