I am interested in learning about this but i don't know where to start.

After the war began, what did the British decide their goal(s) was? Did they want to make the US British colonies again? Did they want to make them a vassal state of sorts with regard to commerce? Did they just want to knock the Americans down a peg?

Why did people start calling this unnamed Pharaoh "Ramses" and when did they start doing it?

I mean, nobody except people that could colonize it really cared. Was it not surprising or interesting at all? It's an entire new world and their reactions aren excitement?

I have heard stories of them expanding as far as the continent. Are they true? What were the primary trade items, etc... Sorry if this question is vague.

Why did New Jersey, a free state, initially reject the 13th Amendment, when their ratification would have sped the enactment of the amendment, and then approve it after the amendment had already become part of the constitution?

By late 1942 the Royal Navy had lost 5 carriers; the US Navy had lost 4 carriers & it's remaining 3 were either unfit for fleet operations (Ranger), coming off an extended period of repair (Saratoga), or about to undergo an extended period of repair (Enterprise); the Japanese Navy had lost 6 carriers. Did any of these navies enter 1943 rethinking the role & value of aircraft carriers?

It has recently come to my attention that the good deities in Zoroastrianism (Ahuras) are etymologically relayed to the evil ones in hinduism (Asura) and the inverse applies to (Daevas to Devas). It's been theorized that Zoroastur inverted the morality and cosmology of hinduism. But it seems to me that their ethics aren't even so different as to worship each other's devils. On the surface at least, it seems like they have a lot in common. Is there something I don't know about this?

And even the soldiers composing it ?

I'm sorry if it's not the good place for it, you can suggest more appropriate subreddit for my request.

Upon looking it up, I find the date Friday 13. of October, yet I seem to remember hearing something about how this was only the date in the calendar they employed, and that the actual date was something akin to 28. of September or November.

Is this true, or was I fooled by someone? Apologies if this is a stupid question, but I want this clarified so I can sleep easily lol

In the city I live (Los Angeles), Thai restaurants are ubiquitous. They may even be more popular than Chinese restaurants. I've noticed similar trends in other large US cities such as Chicago and Portland. Why are Thai restaurants so much more common in the US than other SE Asian cuisines? I can't recall the last time I've seen a Cambodian, Malaysian, or Laotian restaurant. There are certainly Vietnamese restaurants but these are typically limited to pho or banh mi sandwich places and again are much less common than Thai restaurants. To my knowledge there isn't a large Thai diaspora in the US.

I want to preface this by saying I am in no way questioning the wisdom of this decision (I am queer myself), just questioning the historical reasoning.

It is my understanding that homosexual activity has been legal in France since 1791, when sodomy was not included in the new revolutionary penal code. Despite the myriad regime changes in France since then, sodomy/homosexuality was never officially recriminalized. France was centuries ahead of most of the West in this regard: Sodomy was not officially decriminalized a majority of European countries until after WWII, and 16 US states still had sodomy laws on the books until the 21st century.

What made France so comparatively progressive in this regard? One could pin it on the Revolution, but I don't think that explains why it was another 150 years before most other comparable countries started to follow suit. And why wouldn't sodomy be recriminalized during conservative post-revolution regimes like the Bourbon Restoration?

Many thanks in advance, and happy pride month!

I have spent almost 7 years learning about early 20th century history, yet in school I have learned nothing about World War One and little about World War Two, why does school not teach more about this era of history? Also, is there a book you recommend about World War 1?

I'm talking stuff that's historical but not particularly unique or wow enough for museums to want to display, like pottery sherds and lumpy lithics that are just like a thousand other pieces. Will a museum take them regardless, or does something else happen to them?

Perhaps this is just coming from a place of ignorance, but it seems to me like at the very least most East and South-East Asian cultures extensively use soy sauce in their cuisine. Did these cultures develop soy sauce independently? Did it come from somewhere and spread? Are there any cultures in the region that don't use soy sauce?

Reading about the landings in Normandy on June 6th 1944, I am struck by the sheer numbers of Allied casualties taken on one day, which is generally agreed to be roughly ten thousand. This is comparable to a particularly bad day of the battle of the Somme or some other disastrous military operation. I'll admit I am absolutely no authority on tactics, but surely sending thousands of men directly on to a beach with no cover under direct fire from deeply entrenched Axis machine gun positions is not an ideal way to invade from the coast. Was there really no better option than to send masses of infantry on to an open beach? Could the Allies not have made more of an effort towards suppressing all the Axis defences before sending thousands of young men to die?

I am real interested in the living standards of the average Russian (not other soviets) following the revolution but before the 1930s (when the famine happened). I am interested in knowing what major, if any, successes the Bolsheviks had in raising living standards and in what way (e.g. I have heard that literacy increased & caloric intake, etc.). Finally, would these improvements to living standards have likely happened if the revolution failed & Russia had stayed Tsarist?

Thanks!

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