I went to visit Dachau a few years ago and was interested to learn the gas chamber was most likely never used for mass executions, and was possibly never used at all.
It also seems to me that Dachau did not have many mass executions of prisoners (while there were mass executions of Soviet POWs, they never actually entered the camp.) As it was a work camp and not an extermination camp, it seems like most deaths of actual camp prisoners were caused by disease rather than direct actions.
Obviously, it wasnt a nice place to be in the slightest, but it seems to me a Jewish prisoner would have been better off at Dachau than at most of the other camps. Is this true?
What resulted in some Jews being sent to Dachau while others were sent to extermination camps?
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evidence: 1. Columbus's log of Aug 9 said he left with 3 caravels. Santa Maria was a 'nao' or cargo ship.
a letter discovered in the Vatican library from a bishop who saw Columbus set sail. in his letter the bishop said columbus left with 4 ships.
i have seen references even naming the ship as the Santa Christina which soon burned.
any truth to this theory?
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I’m not sure where to post this, but I’d assume the answer has some historical basis.
Most major cities across the world (that I know of, at least) are situated along a coast or on a major river tying it to the coast.
But I was looking at a map of Mexico and most of the largest cities are fairly distant from the coast.
Why did these inland cities get so big, and what kept the port cities like Veracruz, Cancun, or Puerto Vallarta stayed relatively small?
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I know Hitler was appointed to power, but the Nazi party did win some elections before that. Did the votes come from regions, like Prussia or Bavaria? Or were they scattered?
For example, the AFD currently is picking up seats, but their power is scattered across the country. Back in 1930s Germany, I suspect the nation had a more of a regional political system due to being recently united.
I know the Prussian oligarchs largely did not like Nazis. So who did, other than poor people? Is there a red state/blue state comparison?
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For example, Rhodesian white, freshly independent government was succeeded by Mugabe, who began to train army brigade just to kill Ndebele people. Same, or worse, results could be seen in Uganda, Congo, Zaire, Malawi... What were the common factors, and could it have been prevented?
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Before I created my account on reddit, I saw two posts much earlier this year when I was lurking.
As both discussions state,indeed you always see the notion of "teamwork trumps all" in beginners book on history and history channel documents as well as internet discussions. I am wondering if individual skills matter in formations too? For example would how well a Roman raw recruit could stab his sword an important factor in formation? Like the poster in the two links state many statements such as "the side whose phalanx holds together longest will wins" makes it sound as though its pointless to learn how to aim at a target when throwing javelins at a mass of enemies. However even formation-heavy cultures like the Romans still emphasized training an individual to be both in his best physical shape and to individually stab at an enemy in single combat or aim at wooden target dummies to practise hitting darts on with individual marksmanship.
Is formation simply an automatic force multiplier like many TV shows or 5th grade history books imply? Since its always pointed out that the individual doesn't matter but the team does in pop history media such as games? Why even bother teaching a new Roman recruit in bootcamp the weak points of the human body or make an English yeoman practise his own bow skills by shooting targets as an individual if formations is the most important thing? I mean if you're going to shoot volleys I don't see why its important a javelineer be taught how to throw a spears at the farthest distance possible. If you're going to be protected by a phalanx, why teach Athenian militia how to use his spear to parry and defend against attacks?
Can anyone explain why Mongol light cavalry would be taught how to hold a spear properly for a single jousting style duel even though his role is to be a hit-run archer? Or why Romans had young boys just recruited into camp practise one-on-one dueling if the Roman formations are what win battles? Why bother with these specific training if the side that holds the Phalanx longest is the winner?
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I may be wrong but why does Chinese social and technological and military advance seem to stagnate during the Qing. Was it an inevitable part of the dynastic governing style?
Does the decline predate the Qing?
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When reservations were created, Native Americans were in many cases forcibly removed from their ancestral lands and marched to reservations. Today, to the best of my knowledge, Native Americans can freely move on and off the reservations and even reside outside their reservations without limitation. Was there a time where the reservations were more restrictive? How did that evolve?
I know that the treatment of Native Americans can be an emotionally difficult topic. Please forgive any insensitivity in the question- I assure you that it’s out of ignorance rather than intentional disrespect.
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Context: I'm an undergrad history student in university and one of my lecturers was talking about a non academic article we had to read, I said that it seemed like the article was working backwards from a conclusion, but my lecturer said there was nothing wrong with that. I disagreed and said that surely forming a conclusion and then attempting to find evidence to suit it is backward logic, and that it would be better to review evidence and then form a conclusion from what you read, or to attempt to disprove your own ideas about a subject through reviewing evidence, as is done in science.
Am I wrong? Does trying to be objective as possible not matter in academic history? And is it common for historians to try to prove their conclusions rather than form conclusions from evidence?
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With Halloween just around the corner, I've grown pretty interested in European folklore and superstition. I was wondering if anybody knew of any good books to read / documentaries to watch on the topic. I'd love to learn about the occult / paranormal specifically. Fairy tales, monsters, supernatural beings, or even stuff like the origins of strange superstitions (ex sprinkling salt on your doorstep to ward away evil).
Thanks!!
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Looking for any information for the above question. And by "Dark Aged" I mean the period spanning roughly 650 - 1066.
I have a preconceived image of a very brown / grey / plain world with a smattering of reds. Would the average person have access to a wider range of coloured garments such as blues, greens and yellows? And if so how common would these have been??
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That is, was the dissonance of a spiritual, ascetic movement taking root in the heart of worldliness and culture in the Western world something the early Christians themselves were aware of, and,if so, how did they comment upon it?
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I'm curious about the cross between these indigenous and world religions and how they clashed one another.
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