Not physically, but after he or she finished their raids and gained riches, what would they spend it on? who would they pay, and for what? In general I'm quite unsure about what people with wealth really spent their gold on. I'm trying to get a basic idea of the life of a viking but I can't really picture them returning to Scandinavia and spending their money on anything, there's no malls, and wouldn't everyone else be mostly poor anyway?

I'm in the middle of reading the children's fictional series called The Royal Diaries, based off of the Dear America series. And I'm currently reading the one about Elisabeth of Bavaria who marries Franz Joseph I. Well there is a part in the book where, before Sisi with her mother and sister travel to meet the Emperor, Sisi talks about how she really missed seeing Count Richard S...….. but she didn't finish his name because she was worried that someone would find her diary and read it. But she mentions how for a period of time he mysteriously disappeared, even though the adults seemed to know where he was; and then when he appeared again, he fell ill and then died. She thought the whole thing was suspicious but she never mentioned it to anyone. The only thing she says it that she greatly misses him and will never forget him. The author never again mentions who this person is and I've tried looking around online but no luck.

So does anyone know who the author was talking about? Was he a real life person, or is this a fictional character simply made for the book?

To keep this within the confines of the 20-year rule, keep the answer up to the year 1998.

And what happened to them between the period of Germany's surrender and Japan's surrender?

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There was already the Nazi Soviet Pact that carved up Poland between Germany and the Soviet Union. What prevented further cooperation between the two powers? Did Japan ever voiced opposition to USSR's entry in the Axis Pact?

Edit: #1: we can take as read that people were racist back in 1900

I've been doing research into the history of the Oslo Accords and I often see the claim that the PLO's decision to back Saddam (and the fallout from that after Saddam was defeated) was what forced them to the negotiating table with Israel in regards to the Oslo Accords. However, I cannot find any good sources for this claim other than a educated guess based upon Kuwait's expulsion of Palestinians and many Arab states reducing support for the PLO. Are there any good academic sources on this, and the state of the PLO from 1980-1995 and their decision to negotiate with Israel?

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Is it true that forging steel was not invented in the entierty of subsaharan africa, and only introduced by outsiders from the north or by sea?

Pacifism seemed to greatly increase after WW1 as people had seen the horrors of war, yet propaganda still alienated those against war into WW2. Given there has been thousands of years of armed conflict in human history, what did pacifism look like before these wars and what were the consequences of being a pacifist at any given point in history?

Not even sure if this is the right sub, if it isn’t I’m sorry, I’ll delete the question. Anyway, I took an Intro to Mythology and this question was posed, but a specific answer was never given.

I think it’s really interesting because a lot of cultures have very similar stories of creatures like werewolves/shapeshifters, or vampires, kraken, etc. And some of these cultures has these similar stories long before they were in context. For example, shapeshifter/werewolf legends can be traced back pretty far—quite a few mentions of it in Ancient Greece, but there’s also mentions of it in Native American tribes from not long after, and there’s no way these two cultures ever came into contact.

And there’s tons more examples of these weird similarities, so I was wondering what the cause is?

I'm posting this here because I want to see what insight ya'll have about this. Its more of a linguistics question, but language is a part of history after all. I will be posting this same question to r/linguistics

When we count numbers aloud, 1-10 are usually uniquely named, and numbers above 20 are usually just the 2-digit prefix (twenty, thirty, forty, etc) followed by the single digit. For example, "Twenty-One" and "Sixty-Four". But, 11-19 are almost always different. Eleven, Twelve, Thirteen, Fourteen, etc. don't follow the same pattern as the rest of the 2-digit numbers.

Firstly, why is 13-19 counted differently than numbers above 20 (in English)? Why do we put the single digit first (and modifying it as appropriate), then following it with "teen". Is there some historical reason for this?

However, the main part of my question is why the first few numbers after 10 are entirely different from any other numbers. Why have we given these numbers completely unique names? "Eleven" and "Twelve" are completely unique. In Spanish, "Once", "Doce", "Trece", "Catorce", and "Quince" are all totally unique names that follow no patterns or rules. Why did we decide these names would be unique, instead of calling all these numbers "Ten-One", "Ten-Two", or in Spanish, "Dieci-Uno", "Dieci-Dos", "Dieci-Tres", "Dieci-Quatro", and "Dieci-Cinco". Was there a reason we needed unique names for these numbers?

My guess is that we dealt with these numbers more often, so either we wanted or needed unique names for them. I understand this is a linguistics question, but any insight as to why our language developed this way would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!