Like the title says, how long does one individual need to finish one simple, early 1600s style musket?

Lets say I already bought, everything I need from the local smith and have the right tools and a nice little workshop.

Catharism seems like it completely dissippeared in the 14th century but I know other medieval Christian heresies like Lollardy survived in England until the 16th century when it merged with the Protestant Reformation, so is it possible that Catharism or some cultural elements or memories of it survived in Southern France for a few centuries from the 1300s until the 1500s and then contributed to Southern France becoming a militant stronghold of Protestantism in the 16th-17th centuries?

Is this not an accepted part of the history? Is there not enough evidence? I don’t understand why this part of the historical record isn’t talked about, or how Henry Kissinger is so highly revered to this day. Please help me understand.

I am somewhat aware of the fact that Granada (the last Muslim territory in the Iberian peninsula) was conquered by the Spanish around the same Colombus made his famous (or rather infamous) journey to the New World. My question is, did the Spanish ever make any comparisons between Muslims and Native Americans (more specifically the Aztecs, Mayans, and Inca)? If so, what were they?

What was naval combat like just before gunpowder became dominant? Preferably around the 13th to 14th century. I'm interested in both short and long range combat, both anti ship and anti personal. Thank you for any answer.

The standard line of strategic position and mineral wealth are often touted as the reasoning for the BRITISH second occupation [colonizing] of the Cape ie Cape Colony aka South Africa. What other reasons were part of the decision to keep the Cape Colony British after they handed it back to the Dutch in 1803 ?

Title about sums it up. Were these two countries completely free of Western influence? Or were there elements of quasi-colonialism or imperialism at play, but never full on colonization?

Pretty much the title. Were the Canadian colonies outright fighting against the rebelling American ones? If a Canadian colony had also rebelled (let's say Nova Scotia), would it have joined the US and be remembered amongst the original 14 colonies?

Were all of Britain's North American possessions seen as united before the war, only for 13 to break away or were the 13 rebelling colonies always seen as their own region?

I have been reading Shelby Foote’s “The Civil War: A Narrative”.

In this book Davis is described as a proponent of the state’s rights to leave the union and upon Mississippi voting to leave he delivers a speech in the senate informing them that Mississippi has left the union and he bids farewell.

Later he is with his wife in a rose garden or something and receives a letter informing him he has been elected the president of the CSA which is portrayed as coming as a surprise to him.

I understand the mechanics of the election that got him elected, which states voted and the allocation of the votes. What I do not understand is why/how he was elected without his knowledge, acceptance of nomination, or being aware that he was in the running.

Or is this portrayal not entirely accurate and I am missing something here?

I understand that the process was not quick and it consisted of suppression of minorities, Turks had greater economic and political opportunity. However, why did this only happen in Anatolia (particularly the Eastern part)? Why didn't this happen in Persia where the Seljuk Turks ruled for over a century or in the Balkans/Mesopotamia under the Ottoman Turks?

More strangely, most breakfast foods are inacceptable foods for lunch and dinner.

I get that the quality of soldiers weren’t good but the amount of casualties they’ve sustained were ridiculous. I’ve seen so many videos about China losing hundreds of thousands of soldiers during battles, while the Japanese lost a significantly lower amount. How did this happen? What strategies did Japan use to inflict so many casualties?

I had no idea the Statue of Liberty torch has been closed to the public for over 100 years due to damage sustained during a bombing. Can anyone shed more light on the event?

To elaborate a bit, from a modern perspective the mandate of heaven seems very transparently self serving for a newly successful regime, to the extent it might be a convenient fiction rather than a sincere belief. But its hard to accurately assess the beliefs of past societies

Any good resource recommendations, specifically for Washington State?

In may 1940 germany invaded the netherlands as part of case gelb. The dutch army was forced to surender after 5 days of fighting. At wich point the nsb was prompt to declare the queen and her goverment who had fled to londen day's before traitor's. My question is why would a nationalist/fasist orgnisation suport invaders who killed dutch troops over their own goverment and country?(Sorry for the bad english its not my native language. =D)

edit: the title should say ocupation not invasion.

Re-watching the two movies last couple days and wondering about this.

Did Mario Puzo base the lore in "The Godfather" series on actual mafia contacts or even family mafia history?

Or did he just shoot from the hip and creatively make stuff up?