I know a lot of people say Hitlers biggest mistake was invading the USSR (in hindsight yes) but I know during 1941 it seemed like Germany was going to maybe pull it off. Did Britain have any war plans for continuing the fight against the 3rd Reich had the Soviet Union collapsed? I haven’t found/seen any discussion on it other than the simple “Germany would win” and that I think Britain and France had considered (don’t know if this true) bombing the Baku oil field after the SU invaded Poland, so I’d imagine that would be on the table in the event of them falling into German hands had the Russians not already sabotaged them.

Lots of ships + not a lot of oil = ???

Hello, this is a topic that have been bugging me for the longest time. What are considered to be the warning signs of fascism?

Was there a catalogue? Where the scrolls sorted by topic? Did they have librarians you could go to and ask for guidance?

I know that a lot of them didn't stay for longer than 2-3 years, but still, immigrants kept coming all the way until the late years of the war. White Rhodesian men were subject to a hard conscription in the middle of a war, both of which didn't exist back in England. Furthermore, reservist call-ups were very frequent, and man could expect to spend some time in the bush at least one tour a year. Did they really trade a peaceful civilian carefree life in England for a one of constant call-ups, possible danger to you and your family in what is essentially a low-level war, all for some better weather and bit better living standard? I'm talking about ordinary people and families, not male volunteers who came with a specific purpose to fight.

Where did this myth come from? Were there any pacific island communities that actually did this, or is it entirely a stereotype that’s not representative of the actual histories of island cultures?

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Despite officially being a belligerent force against Israel, they only provided two aircraft in the war. Why was this the case?

Hope this meets all the sub requirements. Hi-o!

So, obviously this is a somewhat imprecise question, since "alcoholism" as such is an incredibly modern disease model, but hopefully couching it in terms of texts will make things easier. Are there any treatments of history kickin' around with the disease model at least partially in mind, and at least a little bit distinct from simply "a history of alcohol"?

Searching old posts in the sub has yielded some interesting if somewhat expected avenues, and i've gleaned a few titles. Thanks, any lil' bit helps!

While France had about 17 archbishops in the Middle Ages, England only had 17 bishops in total, including the archbishops. Wikipedia (sorry) also claims that, on the eve of the French Revolution, France had 136 cathedrals compared to 27 in England. The situation is particularly extreme in the Midlands and North, with just five dioceses covering most of the area from the Mersey estuary to the Thames estuary (excluding East Anglia). Is the apparent disparity to do with how the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms were Christianised, economics, the comparatively strong, centralised monarchy of England compared to France/Italy/Iberia/the Holy Roman Empire, or some other factor?

Was there a specific era that caused widespread acne for teenage humans? Or have we always had it?

Note: If this post belongs on r/askscience let me know and I’ll go there. I’m more interested in the historical relevance of acne than the biological manifestation.

I see interesting questions posted here all the time come up in my home feed. I click on the post and there's usually a dozen or so deleted comments and no answer to the question. What gives?

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France apparently made a massive effort in Algeria to integrate the region fully. Many French governments also treated the area as part of France itself more than as a colony. Even to this day, French culture, language, and customs seems incredibly prevalent in Algeria compared to other French colonies. Why was this effort and status given to Algeria, and not a different colonial posession?