As in, what is traditional etiquette towards the barkeep and patrons, and is friendly carousing accepted or seen as annoying? How much liquor is distasteful? If there are knights, are we equals under the pubs roof or must I show deference? Should I bring protection due to roughousing, or is the bar kept safe by the shared hearth?

Clearly a lot of effort would have gone into training horses historically, just as today, but seeing as how a melee would be particularly terrifying for a horse - were there additional steps taken so that they would remain controllable? Or was it just the normal training you'd give any riding horse and then keep them as blind as possible? Even if nearly totally blind, how would the smells and sounds not trigger panic?

And I know, time and place; honestly I'd be interested in hearing from an expert in any period/location that's knowledgeable in this topic. If we simply must narrow it down then let's say circa 1415AD Western Europe.

Is there a way I can find out what plane my uncle was a tail gunner on during WW2? I know he saw action an had a scar across his forehead that he said was from shrapnel. I would love to know the name of the plane so I can learn more about what he did during the war.

R5: As a secondary question what are some good sources for learning about the Pre-Etruscan Societies of Italy generally and Latium specifically. Thank you for anything you can supply!

From what I read, it seems that Classical Greek hoplites on campaign were typically accompanied by as many attendants; Herodotos even claims the Spartans arrived at Plataea with seven helot servants each. Alexander's Macedonian army permitted a much smaller ratio of servants to heavy infantry -one to ten, and one to one for the cavalry.

Where did Roman armies during the Punic Wars and the campaigns in the Greek east fall on this spectrum? Did the Romans typically march to war with large numbers of servants in tow? To me, the way the legion was enrolled and organized doesn't seem to match the Classical Greek model -the men were selected for each legion individually, rather than the districts-based model we see in Greece. The legions had their own light troops, the Velites, who were not lumped with a heavy infantryman like the Greeks, who gave hoplites the pay of two men to cover their light armed servant as well.

specifically, mail and lamellar

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Or income

When somebody imagines the European colonisation of the Americas, the first countries that come to mind are Spain and Portugal, and to a slightly lesser extent Engand, France and the Netherlands. But why didn't more countries pursue the conquest of the new world, given how profitable that could result for them? Say for example, Venice in particular, that was a maritime and mercantile power for almost the entirety of its existence. What prevented them, or other strong European nations (like the HRE or other Italian city-states) from establishing colonies in America?

I mean I remember reading a book where Lenin heavily denounced imperialism, and Lenin was an influential figure in the USSR and communism worldwide, so were these invasions seen as imperialist by communists abroad?

So finals are fast approaching and that means grades. So I was wondering, when and why do colleges (and other institutions) use the 4.0 GPA scale and grading letters A-F? When and how did this become popular and what made this system stand out when compared to systems such as the 100 point scale?

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It's my understanding that the German Enigma Machine was upgraded from 3 to 6 rotors in 1939, and later 8 for the Naval Engima Machines. What I'm curious is to how public this knowledge was? Britain and Bletchley Park knew about it, but was due to a spy network, German traitors, or was it simply common knowledge? Thank you.

Why did Haiti owe the French money after independence?

What I've gleaned from my reading about this era is that after the death of Edmund Ironside, the last Anglo-Saxon king of England, his two young sons were sent to the Swedish court by Cnut the Great, who had taken over England. It seems to be widely believed that Cnut had intended for them to be killed on the journey. But they aren't, instead they disappear from history and the first that anyone in England seems to hear of them again is when they're adults, living as knights/warriors in Hungary. One dies abroad. Edward the Confessor invites the other back to England; however he dies within days of his arrival.

What I'm curious about: Do historians have any clue how Hungary got mixed up in all this? Is there some connection between the Anglo Saxon nobility and the Magyar nobility? As best I can tell, Hungary itself was just at this period emerging as a kingdom. Why would they stick their necks out to harbor two young men with such powerful enemies? Or if they wouldn't --- if the Aethlings were so forgotten or disregarded during this period that harboring them wasn't risky --- how would the young Anglo-Saxons have managed to find a foothold at court? Who would have been protecting and educating them and why? Is there any figure in these overlapping worlds --- Anglo Saxon, Scandinavian, Magyar, maybe Russian? --- who emerges as a likely suspect who'd have a good reason to help these two young men out?

I know that in Greece it was seen in bad light, but actually Plato's and Aristotle's views of eugenics were extreme, that in the end it was a father who had the will to expose the child on the woods or to rear it. However ableism was surely the common norm even if recognizing the right to live, and I don't know anything about the rest of ancient cultures.