As a German, I grew up with an identity of being "Deutsch". Germanic tribes were known to me as "Germanen". It would be very wrong to call them "deutsch" which, to me, makes them out to be sufficiently different to warrant a different name.

Kinda like Italians today don't call themselves Romans (maybe with the exception of those living in Rome).

What is the reason that the English language doesn't care about making that distinction? Is it a sort of "laziness"? Dan Carlin said that it's not certain whether Caesar's Germani are actually related to moder Germans even.

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I mean when referring to studying things like dinosaurs and the general history of life on Earth

I was just reading about a hockey player who's Russian but born in Estonia and raised in Finland. Made me wonder if the USSR allowed easier travel between nations and if there was an influx of Russians in the smaller Soviet Republics.

I live in the UK and i am concerned that i may have been taught a very one sided version of history and, in particular, the events of ww2. After watching and listening to “revisionist” historians i now find myself unsure of who to believe.

So I’ve been reading about the Transylvania saxons. They migrated to Transylvania Kingdom of Hungary in 1100’s and stayed untill ww2 when a ton were expelled by the Soviet’s and some are around in the modern day.

So my question is how the heck did they manage to stay German over 800 years in foreign lands surrounded by Hungarians and Romanians? They still are German culturally, language wise, and by DNA, but how? How did they not intermix with the Romanian and Hungarians after 800 years? How did they keep their language and traditions and not assimilate. Did they literally only marry other Transylvanian saxons?

Question 2: did other Germans from Germany and Austria consider the Transylvania saxons German even in the 1800-1909’s? Like did the Nazi’s consider the Transylvania saxons to be true pure Germans or did they see them as “mud blood” intermixed peoples of German and Eastern European descent? And did the Austrian empire classify them as ethnic Germans or as Eastern Europeans in say the 1900’s late 1800’s?

It seems like it could’ve easily been slotted into Connecticut or Massachusetts. Why was it separated?

I hope the way I worded the question in the title makes sense. Basically, I can understand why Communism would be appealing to the average person living in Russia in 1917. However i'm wondering about the motivations for the average person who fought on the side of the White army, the average non-wealthy, non-noble, non-aristocrat Russian? Thanks!

Regarding the volunteer army that was established to fight the Franco forces, were they captured as POWs or did their own respective governments bring them back to their homeland?

In recent years a number of high-profile abortion restrictions or bans have been overturned. With a majority of Republican-held state legislatures, a current Republican president and Congress, and a new conservative Supreme Court justice, the idea is that Republicans at the state level are trying to get a test case up to the Supreme Court to overturn Roe v. Wade. Is this an unusual phenomenon?

In the 25 years after Roe v. Wade (up to 1998) there were 3 Republican presidents opposed to the decision, various Republican-held houses of Congress and state legislatures, and a somewhat conservative-leaning supreme court. At what times have there been the most political will to overturn the decision, and have any cases come close?

I figure that it was transported by cart to the sea and then by ship away from Peru. However, I understand that sailing around Cape Horn is difficult (and not somewhere you'd want to put an extremely valuable ship) and I was under the impression that pirates during the Golden Age of Piracy were primarily raiding Spanish ships, and that Spanish treasure galleons were one of their targets. Was there an overland route through South America or across Panama? Or am I just mixing up the time period?

I'm also just generally interested in the mechanics of getting silver from the New World to the Old.

Are there any historians, archaeologistis, Assyriologists etc around today who can speak, read, write or understand Sumerian?

This may seem like an odd question, however in film and television there are examples of people armed with muskets firing their ramrod at the enemy when they did not have another musket ball (Sgt. Harper from the BBC series Sharpe does this in an episode)? I realize that this may very well just be a creation of the film industry, but i figured i would ask because it would certainly be cool if it was true.

The question might be better served if we change the time period to 150BCE, before the Romans had near complete control over the region

A student asked a fascinating question in my Senior English class today: "What would the doors of Herot have looked like?" This was asked in conjunction with an assignment to draw Beowulf and his setting in your own interpretation. The student was trying to do a hyper realistic version.

This was a conglomeration of various city-states with independent governments, cultures, etc. At times they even fought against each other. So, what exactly, if anything, made them think of themselves as one people. How did they differentiate themselves against contemporary civilisations?