I know after the crushing defeat, Fabius delayed the war as long as possible, avoiding possible combats with Hannibal, while bolstering his forces. If Hannibal had decided to march straight to Rome, would it have been possible for him ? If so, how much would it have impacted the remainder of war ?

In other words, is there any such good that can be said to have the same standard value in any time period?

I cant seem to find what he actually said. i was told what he actually said when i was at lexington and concord but i forgot.

Reposting because part of the question I asked violated the 20 year rule.

Anyways, violence by the Buddhist majority against the Rohingya minority is well-known today because of current events, but where did this enmity start?

I haven’t been able to find anything on the internet regarding that and I was really curious towards the truth of it and whether the church frowned upon this “habit”.

Terms like rape, slavery and poverty surely mean something else today than they did 2000 years ago. How do historians get to understand the cultural context of things from that far into the past?

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Side question: The coat of arms of England used lions from the 12th Century, but would people from Northern Europe really have any concept of what a lion actually was?

For clarity:

How exactly did it dawn on people that these elements had the potential to release large amounts of energy? What tipped them off?

Once people knew they had the energy, what made them think it could be used as a bomb (i.e. that it would explode like TNT and not just "slow-burn" like wood)?

How did they realize that critical mass was a thing and that it was required for a sustained reaction?

Thanks in advance.

The Turkish government recently opened up to the public tailored genealogical results for every individual. I’ve taken advantage of this to trace my own ancestors back to the 1800s. Something of note is that I can find no trace of any Turkish person with an actual Turkic name until the republican period, when a conscious national movement towards Turkic names began (and today, Perso-Arabic names are becoming less and less common).

What is the reason Turkish people continued to speak Turkish and have largely Turkish customs and traditions, but not a single Turk from the Ottoman period (or since the 10th century, really) seems to have had a Turkic name for close to a thousand years? In Europe, Latin and Germanic and Celtic names abound and abounded in medieval and early modern times as well as today (alongside Hebrew religious names), so how did Turks so thoroughly give up their native pre-Islamic naming conventions? This also applies to other Turkic countries of Central Asia, where native names also don’t survive in favor of Perso-Arabic ones.

I meant to say "was he", not "is he".

My great-great uncle was a POW in a Japanese camp on Hong Kong for most of WWII. I never knew him and don’t know much about what happened to him.

He did survive. He came home weight about 80 pounds, couldn’t bear to eat rice, and had violent nightmares about snakes that would make him flip his mattress to make sure they weren’t really there.

He was a valued member of the community and was invested in public causes. There’s even a baseball field named after him.

Are there records that would tell me what camp he was in or the things he would have gone through?

All I really know is his name and birthday. I might be able to get a bit more info from my mom.

Hi!

What were some common names in Germanic, Celtic and Slavic languages before Christianity spread through Europe? Do any names from those groups are still widely used today?

Thanks!