Also why is 18 so commonly used as the "legal age" for activities such as driving and voting in many countries ?

After years of static battle, why was the war nevertheless being continued? Did both sides just wait for the other side to run out of resources?

I have been taught in Filipino Martial Arts that it was Lapu Lapu who killed Magellan but am thinking it would be unlikely that both leaders would happen to face each other during battle. Maybe the men who have fought had written accounts such as Antonio Pigafetta or passed it down orally which may have made Lapu Lapu the legend he is. It would also be appreciated if there are accounts of how they both fought. Thank you.

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Did beauty standards universally include women of colour or were there different standards? What did it reveal about attitudes towards class, gender and race?

It's common knowledge that the Austro-Hungarian Empire consisted of a relatively large amount of different ethnic groups, and that the Empire was broken up following its defeat in World War I. However, a lot of thought must have gone into how it should be broken up, who would rule which territories, etc., and this must have been quite a monumental task to perform efficiently and peacefully.

Woodrow Wilson had his Fourteen Points, which stated that the people of Austria-Hungary should be accorded "the freest opportunity to autonomous development". This resulted in new nations including Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia, and an Austrian Republic. But there was also a Hungarian Kingdom, and some lands were ceded to Poland and Italy.

How was it decided that, say, Czechs and Slovaks should share a country? Or that Slovenes should be part of a larger union in the Balkans, and not have their own country? Why was Hungary allowed to have a monarchy, but Austria and Czechoslovakia became republics? Who made these decisions and how? Was there conflict and disagreement among the various ethnic groups of the Empire during this time?

Edit because I keep getting messages about it. I understand that tipped employees make over minimum wage. But they would obviously make more of that got minimum wage and tips on top of that. I am wondering about how the system that let's employers pay under minimum wage for started and if there was a debate about that decision.

Edit 2 - the under minimum + tips must equal minimum. Or something close to that along those lines.

Hi there, I am currently watching World War II in colour and a question keeps occurring to me every time Japanese troops are shown. Why did the Japanese armed forces seem to take much of the western style uniform without modification? Some of it is undoubtedly practical, even the most outlandish looking camouflage still looks like camouflage, but some of the more stylistic aspects are taken as well. Their navy uniforms look much like American or British uniforms at the time, down to the hats. Was there a decision made to use a more Western style of dress rather than continuing a local uniform tradition? And if so, why?

To quote the royal website;

The House of Windsor came into being in 1917, when the name was adopted as the British Royal Family's official name by a proclamation of King George V, replacing the historic name of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha. It remains the family name of the current Royal Family.

I understand that it was changed due to anti-german sentiment at the time, but why was it that Windsor was picked?

As an Australian with no knowledge of Britain, I'm sorry if the answer is obvious!

[Edit] I did some research, but couldn't find any straightforward answers.

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The Constitution says that states are not to be partitioned, but Kentucky and West Virginia have split off from Virginia, as well as Maine from Massachusetts. I also know that currently as well as in the past, there have been lots of campaigns for splitting off parts of a state (rural California, western Washington, southern Ohio, etc.). What is the history behind this seeming contradiction of the Constitution saying one thing but no one seeming to acknowledge it? Does it/has it actually prevented states from partitioning, and if so, why were the three successful cases exceptions? Thanks in advance.

I’ve been reading about this topic recently and I find it interesting that it seems that Europeans called them “turkey, Turkish empire, osmanlis, Ottoman Empire, etc” but from what I could find in my limited quite bad research the ottomans never seemed to call themselves anything like “Ottoman empire, Ottoman sultanate, turkey, Turkish empire” all I could find is that they called them selves “the well protected domains, the exalted ottoman state, the sublime state, the Sublime Porte.” Did they ever before the 19th century call themselves “Ottoman Empire, or Ottoman Sultanate”?

Or, to put it another way, did areas that saw a large influx of Viking traders also get raided with similar frequency?

According to the Irish Cultural Society of the Garden City Area: When, in 1835, Davy Crockett said, "In my part of the country, when you meet an Irishman, you find a first-rate gentleman; but these are worse than savages; they are too mean to swab hell's kitchen." He was referring to the Five Points.

When Einstein proposed his theories of Relativity, it took decades for various forms of experimental validation to be possible. Early on, his proof essentially was a mathematical one, solving on paper contradictions with existing classical theories. It was also an extraordinarily different theory, using radically different, novel, and very complex concepts of how the world works compared to classical mechanics accepted for centuries prior.

Based on the principle of "extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence", was skepticism of Einstein's Theory of Relativity strong in the scientific community following his publication? Did fellow scientists demand experimental proof before accepting it? Or did an essentially mathematical proof gain acceptance despite lack of practical evidence backing it up at the time?

For comparison, existing theories beyond the Standard Model (e.g. String Theory, M-Theory, Loop Quantum Gravity) are often criticized for lack of experimental proof. Despite the known shortcomings of the Standard Model, many consider experimental proof a necessity of any theory claiming to supercede it, with a purely mathematical resolution of contradictions not being considered enough.

I have been reading a lot lately about the Semitic cultures and Sumerians. I looked into the Sumerian dictionary and as a surprise, I have been baffled to see many words in my native language Arabic related to a fair amount of words in their language.

My questions are, were Sumerians and Semites related to any far relation? Did the Semites borrow words from Sumerians or vice versa? If so, please recommend a website or a book that has info about the word borrowing.

Lastly, What language or language-family is somehow similar to Sumerian?