As an American, It seems to be commonly accepted fact from visiting Europeans (and from many other Americans) that many perceived problems in American society, from the fetishizing of bare breasts, to our shaming of public mentioning of bodily functions (calling a "toilet" a "restroom" for instance), to even the idea of "American Christian Taliban" in politics spreading christian and capitalist values through war, are all a result of early Puritanism in the colonies.
After doing some research, including with the search function in this sub, I've found some historical opinions that seem to be saying that early Puritans weren't that tabooed against sex, and even encouraged pre-marital "bundling". https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3klogf/why_did_puritans_developed_different_ideas_toward/
Is this idea of the USA as a conservative Puritan state a 20th century construct? Or did Europeans feel this way during 1800's and the time of the American "wild west" for instance when prostitution was performed out in public? Was 1700s and 1800s Europe more or less conservative with sex and women's dress code than the USA was?
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Like, the United States defeated Great Britain in the War of 1812. The world's foremost superpower, a nation that had a greater army and navy than that of Spain.
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I was watching a documentary on Pablo Escobar, in which they referred to him as "the world's first narco-terrorist." But were there any historical precedents where an individual essentially used crime as a means to rival the local government in terms of wealth and military power?
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Gary Francione, in Introduction to Animal Rights, claims that Descartes and his students would dissect and tortured animals alive and that he would dismiss whimpers and yelps as mere signs that a machine was functioning improperly.
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Did they mostly survive on bread, or were other things commonly eaten? Was it common for troops to have a small amount of wine or other forms of alcohol on their person?
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Title basically has it all. How was Mao's interpretation of Marx different from what Marx laid out and Russian interpretations?
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I was just watching a video on Youtube and got an ad from the Polish National Foundation, the ads message seemed to be that the Germans were horrible to the Polish people and that the Germans alone were responsible for the death camps in Poland.
I have limited knowledge on the topic, but the fact that I'm seeing an ad about this kind of makes me question the accuracy of the video.
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If the Moors were able to remain there for so long, an indication to me of their strength over the Catholic Kingdoms to the north, why were they pushed back?
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Mules are great animals, larger and more personable than a donkey, smarter, hardier and less easy to scare than a horse, they are also healthier and have a longer working life than either horses or donkeys because of hybrid vigor. However to create a mule is no simple task, most Jacks (intact male donkeys) have no interest in mares, and most mares will not present for a Jack like they would for a stallion, and are liable to try to kill a Jack that tries to mount her unwillingly. The only way to make it work is to raise the mares and the Jacks together, so that mares see and smell Jacks as just different sorts of horses and vice versa, it's a very deliberate process, the production of mules has to be planned years in advance, though in the modern day it can be and mostly is circumvented by artificial insemination.
Keeping in mind that this is a deliberate process, not something that will just accidentally happen in a stable or in the wild, when did people first start breeding mules and what originally inspired them to do so? The only information that I can find is that the mule was already well established as a working animal and an infertile hybrid by the time of the Roman Empire, as evidenced by one of their common expressions "when the mule foals" which means the same thing as "when pigs fly."
Thank you for your answers!
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I’ve read that the Japanese American farming community in California was considerably more effective than their American counterparts, with their land being much more valuable, and they had a rapidly increasing market share of a lot of produce and other foods. There does seem to be plenty of sources on this topic, but if anyone out there has some suggestions for deeper readings, or has interesting information on it that would be pretty cool.
Special Interests and the Internment of Japanese-Americans During World War II
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I ask in case there could be a parallel in modern times.
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We cover the first black congressman and many black authors (this isn’t to discredit their work) as part of the curriculum, but the accomplishments of other minorities are only really brought up if the school itself is a part of a region where those minorities are the majority or a significant part of the school population.
An example would be how Asians are only really covered during World War II with the executive order with only one person actually being mentioned as a “key term” and Hispanics are briefly mentioned in other places with the pain figures being “Pancho Villa” and sometimes mentioned during WWII but not many real names given credit other than “Mexico didn’t turn on the US”
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I like receiving links to previous questions that are relevant, I do think that if the comment is solely a link to a past askhistorians thread there should be some amount of original thought added to the comment. It's incredibly frustrating to find comments like this as the top comment in a thread. Nothing is being added, there is no commentary it's pure link. If this was any other source it would be moderated out for being an answer that consists solely of a link.
Per r/askhistorians rules
Do not just post links or quotations
Do not just post links to other sites as an answer. This is not helpful. The expectation is that a user is posting to this subreddit because they are looking for the type of answer dictated by the rules in place here. Please take some time to put the links in context for the person asking the question. Avoid only recommending a source – whether that's another site, a book, or large slabs of copy-pasted text. If you want to recommend a source, please provide at least a small summary of what the source says. (This does not apply to questions that are only created to request sources.) Linking to past /r/AskHistorians questions is allowable, but please take the time to include a username ping for the user who answered in the previous thread.
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I read on wikipedia somewhere that the Titanic's Morse code distress call said "CQD DE MGY".
CQD means "distress". MGY is the call sign for the Titanic.
Would the Carpathia have known that it was the Titanic that was in trouble? If so, how?
Did they keep a registry of call signs aboard every ship? Or did the Carpathia just respond and discover that it was the Titanic when it got there?
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It is well known that the Norse settlers in Normandy assimilated rather quickly, although a good deal loanwords were introduced into Norman French. What I haven't been able to find any source on, however, is when exactly Norse itself died out completely amongst the Normans.
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I made a grammatical mistake in the title, it should be "Water Buffalo are native to Southeast Asia and the Indian subcontinent [....]"
My apologies, looking forward to your answers!
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It's a documentary which I very much like and enjoy, but given the rather one-sided narrative presented, my ignorance of modern global history and the fact that it aligns with my ideological preconceptions, I worry I perhaps take it too much at face value.
So- is it an accurate account? Is it too conspiratorial? Is it contradicted by a number of other sound narratives?
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It was a thing in Greece, Rome and the Muslim powers. How about Europe?
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Today:
You know the drill: this is the thread for all your history-related outpourings that are not necessarily questions. Minor questions that you feel don't need or merit their own threads are welcome too. Discovered a great new book, documentary, article or blog? Has your Ph.D. application been successful? Have you made an archaeological discovery in your back yard? Did you find an anecdote about the Doge of Venice telling a joke to Michel Foucault? Tell us all about it.
As usual, moderation in this thread will be relatively non-existent -- jokes, anecdotes and light-hearted banter are welcome.
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I was reading up on the impending Janus v. AFSCME decision and got to wondering: we're presently in a situation roughly analogous to that of the early 20th century, with powerful corporate interests arrayed against relatively weak (or at least in our case declining) labor interests. With that in mind, how did labor unions ever accrue enough power to become the powerhouse they were in the mid-20th century, when they had even longer odds than those presently faced by their modern-day descendants and had opponents more willing to use openly brutal and probably illegal tactics to prevent the formation of unions in the first place? What were the socioeconomic factors that permitted their rise to power? Conversely, what caused the gradual decline of unions leading into the 21st century?
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