What I mean is a military, President-ordered, tanks and marching soldiers down American streets? I don’t mean post WWII homecoming celebrations, spontaneous or otherwise.

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Surely the last name Hitler was around before Adolf, even if not directly related. I mean my last name is fairly common in the US, but I'm not related to most of them. I'm just curious if Hitler was a fairly common last name in Germany, and if that names usage decreased after WW2.

I vaguely remember a teacher telling me that either a war or influenza drastically decreased the Native American population shortly before the "Discovery of the New World", and this actually prevented the Native population from having the numbers to fight back. Does anyone have any sources for anything to support this claim or something similar?

Edward I of England was also the Duke of Aquitaine and therefore regarded as a vassal of the French King Philip IV due to what I assume was some odd law, which meant Edward had to pay homage to him during a visit to France. Can someone explain how this is supposed to work when the two men are leaders of independent realms of the same 'rank' so to speak? I would have thought the Duchy of Aquitaine would have been seen by contemporaries as absorbed by the English crown after being passed from Eleanor of Aquitaine to her heirs the future English kings.

As I already mentioned I expect there was some law(s) that enforced this strange situation, can someone explain what they were? I also assume being a vassal of France meant Edward was also required to pay tax to the French king just as the other French lords did?

My only guess for why this happened was because Aquitaine was seen as a de jure part of the Kingdom of France despite being controlled by the English, instead of actually being a part of the Kingdom of England.

This has been puzzling me for a while. There has been a lot of media about the Vietnam war period, but not any that I am aware of about the years after. I was wondering how did Vietnam change, what were the major and minor reasons that it didn't end up like North Korea?

Baically just what I put in the title! How was drug use seen in the dark ages and what sort of drugs did people use? I play a lot of DnD and was curious what sort of drugs even existed in Europe at the time.

I was watching the Great Escape (again) the other night and it made me want to know why there were not (as far as I'm aware) any attempts to overwhelm guards or riot? This happens in civilian prisons regularly. Prisoners get resentful and feel they have nothing to lose, and turn on the guards, who may have gotten a bit sloppy or undermanned. Are there any examples of military prisoners of war on either side in World War 2 attempting this? And of the resultant retaliatory response? And if there was not, why not? Would love to hear a serious answer, not speculation but actual research.

Thanks in advance!

(I'm aware of the Sobibor Revolt, this is more about military prisoners.)

Great Grandpa was an Italian immigrant living in Newburgh, NY. He made it to at least the third tier of metaphysical lessons. One document is titled "The Code of the Nazarene" and discusses the whereabouts of Jesus during the "missing" years of his story. Most of the paperwork has dates of 1933-1936.

What types of secret societies would be open to immigrants (and presumably Catholics)?

I am particularly interested in the changes that occurred in Africa and on the Western Front.

Thank you very much!

I would like to ask if the younger sons of an earl (or aristocratic in general), who don't get to inherit their father's title, are consider noble or middle class; to be more specific, the time set is Victorian England/British. Thanks in advance

When you picture the Roman Empire, you can imagine spectacular formations of fully armored legionnaires, beautiful cities with intricate government systems, and an absolutely monstrously large amount of territories. It is honestly difficult to believe that the barbaric and primitive tactics and systems of the Medieval Era came after the Roman Empire.

Why is there such a massive difference in the Roman Empire and the Kingdoms of post-Roman Europe? Was it due to the resources available? Is the Roman Empire merely extremely glorified and not at all how it is often portrayed? Are the Kingdoms in Europe after the fall of the Roman Empire much, much more advanced than we commonly imagine them to be?

(By fall, I'm referring to the 476 fall of the West Roman Empire, rather than the fall of the East Roman/Byzantine Empire in 1453.)

Recently, when watching The Great War series on youtube, I encountered information that Italy had plans to make Adriatic it's inner lake by conquering parts of Austria-Hungary and annexing Albania. Italy's conquest in World War 2 were also mainly directed at the Adriatic (Yugoslavia). What were the causes of Italian tendency to focus on this area during this period? What was the reasoning of the politicians in charge? Was this a popular goal among the people?

So, as I am aware, China has had a system of regimented and clearly defined civil ranks and a comprehensive civil service system ranging from the PRC to the Qing, Ming, etc. So the main thing that I have been wondering is that did the Taiping Heavenly Kingdom have one, and if so, what was the structure of it, and if possible, have sources such as books, links or websites dedicated to it. Not a general description, but a highly detailed list of rank numbers, military equivalents, and the charts and diagrams for these systems.

How often, if ever, did warriors randomly stumble in battle, and ended up killing themselves as a result? For instance, if an army was charging down a hill, and someone stumbled and somehow got killed by their own weapon. Are there any historic accounts of this ever happening? I can't help but think that this wouldn't be that uncommon. Maybe I'm wrong.

I am a bit curious on this matter, my question is on the topic of Early US History

This is perhaps just demonstrating my own biases and ignorance, but it seems that most classical composers of renown, with a few exceptions, come from Italy, Germany, France and Austria (and Russia come the 19th century, but the reasons for that are far clearer). So why do other areas in Western Europe- Iberia, Britain, Scandinavia- seem so under-represented?

The Book of Genesis is pretty clear that clothing - at least to cover one's genitals - is a consequence of the Fall of Adam and Eve, an event that all humanity was believed to have taken part in. But in the 16th and 17th centuries the Christian Portuguese encountered a people who must have appeared completely comfortable without this standard, even as adults. How did they reconcile this with their interpretation of scripture?

This would also apply to any other cultures with minimal or no clothing requirements, as in New Guinea or Australia; I just chose Brazil because it's an earlier date, and Portugal was monolithically Catholic, so the religious side is easier to assume.

And as a pre-emptive follow-up: how did this interact with their perception of other, very non-Christian and non-European customs among native Brazilians such as cannibalism?

E.g. compared to Germany, Poland, etc in the lead-up to WW2.