Or any other civilization for that matter? What kind of names did they give their domesticated animals?

Britain is often said to have last been successfully invaded in 1066 AD following the Norman Conquests. However, considering that the Glorious Revolution of 1688 consisted of William III of the House of Orange invading England with an Armada, and successfully deposing a head of state, why isn't the Glorious Revolution considered the "last successful invasion of Britain"?

A friend's dad asked recently and my best guess had to do with livestock, crops, and soil that were suitable for farming, but I am by no means confident about any of this.

I already know some general details about his life like his relationship with the Ottoman Empire and some captivity bits etc...my question is a little bit more specific though. In the research I've already done I have largely found details about the bigger things he's been involved with but I'm not finding details about his day to day life really, or furthermore concrete evidence regarding the vampire stories short of the author who wrote the first story about it.

I would like to be very clear that I am not asking you to write my report for me. I am asking for a nudge in the right direction, answers like "have you heard about __? There are some interesting articles about it but in general (this) is what happened."

I wouldn't stop anyone from going in depth if you'd like to, especially considering the nature of this subreddit, but I don't want this to get buried because I happen to be studying him for a short research paper.

Thank you all in advance if I get responses. If you would like I will upload my finished paper here as well!

How many books similar to The Iliad may have been written that were lost?

We have a podcast covering a fictional book (The Book of the New Sun) whose main character is a professional guilded torturer. The book itself is Sci Fi/Fantasy, but it is heavily based on historical and mythological research. One notable element that's come up is that he mentions anecdotes about himself or other torturers/executioners who receive tips from their clients for the work performed. We're trying to figure out if this is an invention of the author, or if there's some factual basis for the practice.

In a surface search on google, etc, we've found several unsourced accounts that hangmen and executioners would receive "tips" and/or bribes from their clients in order to ensure a clean and quick death. There are also several accounts in fiction (such as Robert Bolt's play, "A Man For All Seasons,") that suggest this was a somewhat common practice, but no primary sources or academic research. Does anyone have any sources that point to this being an actual practice, or is it the stuff of legend?

Thanks!

Correct me if I'm wrong, but it seems as if up until the mid-20th century, study of Latin and Ancient Greek was essential to being considered an educated member of the upper class in Western society. However, nowadays it doesn't seem nearly as common. Even elite preparatory schools seem to only offer Latin or Greek as an elective course, rather than a mandatory one, and study of either language doesn't seem to be nearly as common as it used to be.

Why is that?

The socially accepted norm and idea that homosexuality or any other sexuality that did not involve heterosexuality was a dominant mentality that stayed for generations and ironically, there were some eras in history where homosexuality or LGBT sexuality was not really treated with contempt and disgust like in ancient Greece.

Despite the recent yet slow change and awareness of this mentality and slow acceptance of LGBTQIA rights among many people around the world (and not just by people who were already familiar that being gay and not-hetero was not a deviant behaviour), homophobia still exists in some regard and even held strongly in some countries.

My question is how this mentality originated and how this has been shared and supported generally for many generations and also among many different cultures regardless of their religions/beliefs, nationalities, philosophies and so on

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I just learned that the people of the Byzantine Empire still called themselves as Roman but in comparison to the Western Roman Empire, the dominant language was Greek which may have been mostly influenced by the Greek culture that was passed down through generations after Alexander the Great conquered most of the East.

I also learned that the language that one speaks influences a lot in one's culture so if the people in the Byzantine Empire were speaking in Greek then this may also mean that their culture was also influenced by that of Greek descent or descent from the Hellenistic Era.

So I wish to ask that since the Byzantine Empire was originally a part of the Roman Empire and was still a part of the Roman Empire until it fell to the hands of the Ottomans, how long and how much of the Roman influence stayed in the Byzantine Empire?

In the film's Dunkirk and Darkest Hour, prior to the landings they seem to only expect to be able to evacuate around 30 thousand troops but actually manage closer to 300,000. Was the success / miscalculation simply due to more civilian craft being mobilised than expected?

Now I understand at this point the Holy Roman Empire was a shadow of it's former self, barely holding it's practically sovereign internal constituents together, but the possibility still interests me

I can't seem to find a definitive source saying how many and how much he was let (idk if that's the right verb). If someone had a source that would be perfect!

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