I know that Prince Wilhelm of Prussia served in the Wehrmacht during the invasion of France in 1940 and died during the invasion itself, the reaction by the public following his death was enough to spook the German government into banning members of the Royal Houses (Prince Law?) from serving in the Wehrmacht from 1940 onwards. My question is, prior to the 1940 law, how many members of the former German royal houses served in the Wehrmacht? and then following the 1940 law, how many members served in the Kriegsmarine and/or Luftwaffe?

I always thought that we fought for and obtained our independence because the British were suppressing us, taxing us to death and treating us like dirt, but lately some of the books I'm reading are painting a different picture. For example, one book I'm reading says that British wanted to free the Black slaves and give Indian Americans some of their land back while Americans wanted to keep their slaves and keep expanding into Indian territory. Also, it looks like British wanted to tax us on some stuff like tea, but how bad can a tea-tax be that we went to war over it? Didn't we pay much lower taxes than the British who lived in England anyways? I'm starting to think that maybe the British weren't the "bad guys" in this war. What's the story behind this? Also, what would America be like if the British had won? I'd think that it is possible that the slavery would have been abolished much sooner and Indians would have survived in greater numbers, am I wrong?

I'm doing research on the Cold War for my senior thesis and thought a good jumping off point might be getting a feel on what other historians think on the matter.

Almost every other language on the continent of Europe has so many grammatical cases, conjugations, linguistic gender, adjective declension, complicated patterns of forming plurals from nouns, etc, that English almost seems like a pidgin language compared to its neighbors or even its ancestors. When and why did this shift take place?

EDIT: I'm not shitting on the language. You can make very complex sentences with it and it's easy to learn

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How were the British defeated so quickly and driven back to Dunkirk? It seems like they weren't prepared to face the Germans, was this from poor planning or did they just underestimate the power of Germany?

I'm reading parts of a "Debt: The First 5000 Years," by David Graeber. He mentions that about nine thousand years ago, the people in Çatalhöyük burned down the palaces and temples, and created an egalitarian society without the state, where men and women were treated equally.

Is there archaeological evidence to base these claims on or is this account just speculation? Can archaeologists accurately determine the political, social, and economic aspects of such an ancient civilization?

EDIT: The story is NOT from Graeber, sorry for the confusion.

I hope I don't offend any Christians with this question but I was just wondering why the chi-rho isn't used anymore ☧ . It seems like a better symbol to represent the religion than the cross as it doesn't glorify the crucifying of Christ. When exactly did they stop using the chi-rho?

I don't expect one person to be able to give a run down on a biography for each President. I'm just on a mission to read a biography on each of them and am looking for suggestions.

My dad has had this box for a long time and he asked me to find out what it stored. The beginning of the inscription tells us that it stored something for the BL 6-inch Gun Mk XIX, but we can't find out what. Can the lovely people of reddit please help us out. From the photos I have of it (It is inaccessible to me for about a week) it says BL 6-inch Gun Mk XIX gun equip I K&S NO 17 1941.

Thanks!

A History professor I once had offered a view of the Atomic Bombings of Japan that I found quite interesting and was interested in seeing more about/how valid it its. Essentially, he argued that since the Soviet Union had gained so much territory at the end of WW2 and due to U.S. fears about a Soviet invasion of Japan, the U.S. decided to drop the atomic bombs to scare off the Soviets from gaining further territory. He offered us several documents which stated that Japan would fall within a few months from continued bombing-thus necessitating a quick end to the war. How is this view received?

How did other Christian denominations react?

From Mexico to Argentina, corruption has been a major problem in the countries of the Americas that were once Spanish colonies. Since Spanish rule and culture are the main characteristics that they had in common, I imagine their shared tendency toward corruption has some causal relationship to these characteristics rather than being a mere coincidence, is that correct?

If such is the case, why do the monumental levels of corruption that have long characterized Latin American countries seem to be absent from present-day Spain (or Spain in the 1990s, to avoid breaking the twenty-year rule)? Is it a result of an old Spanish cultural trait that survived in Spain's former colonies but died out in the motherland, or something else?