Before the 18th century the word Nationalism didin't exist. What were people before this ideology came to existent? Weren't people already somehow nationalistic?
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I know this is pretty general but I wanted to know if anyone knew what this pin was. I'm 90% sure it's WWII era. Is it some kind of decoration or Medal? Thanks. http://imgur.com/a/aHftg
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I know that the temperance movement was a in part a christian movement, but in the Bible Jesus litteraly ask his followers to drink wine in his memory and priests actually drink wine when celebrating mass. Woudn't complete prohibition of alcohol considered anti-christian?
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Given that virtually no peasants would be literate and what writings they did make were not likely to be preserved, what primary sources do we have regarding their experience? Are they largely in the form of interviews/records created by literate clergy? Particularly interested in Russian peasants under the tsars and emperors and their relationship with the ruling classes (I'm familiar with the Primary Chronicle which touches on that under the princes, but obviously isn't the work of a peasant), but any answers are helpful!
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what historical problems did these two systems try to fix in the medieval era?
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Basically what I know about Boudica is:
Tacitus wrote about her
She's a character in Civ
The British have named several ships HMS Boadicea
She's supposedly buried between platforms 9 and 10 in King's Cross Station (which seems to be an odd place for a burial, but I digress)
What if any sources do we have about her actual life, and how reliable are they considered in the modern era?
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Apologies if I'm using the wrong era name.
I was wondering why Republics, states without kings or monarchies, were tolerated in an era where it was believed that Kings ruled by divine right?
Am I totally misunderstanding how divine right works? I know that the Roman Republic was allowed, but that was pagan. Why did Christian Kingdoms allow Republics to exist, and how did they differentiate between Venice/Genoa etc who apparently could be led by anyone and kingdoms who were ruled by divine right?
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This struck me as unusual so I thought I'd ask.
I'm reading some minutes of a church meeting held in April 1841 in Manchester, England. It mentions that a visiting preacher presented a "richly ornamented cake" made by his wife in New York City and that they distributed cake to nearly 700 people. This preacher wasn't especially wealthy, so I imagine it was the kind of cake an average American woman could make in 1841.
What kind of cake would've been likely sent? A really fast Atlantic crossing in 1841 was about 2 weeks--what kind of cake could hold up in the mail for 2 or 3 weeks? That was also big enough for 700 people to have a taste?
What would a "richly ornamented" cake look like in 1841?
Thanks for satisfying my curiosity!
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Just what the title says.From what I could gather the success of the British was a combination of expanding naval trade and the country's relatively newly founded colonies and territories. That said I still am left wondering how they got in the position to dominate in those areas in the first place? Unless it was something else all together? A quick google search didn't show anything convincing so I thought I'd bring it here. Thanks for the input!
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And additional: If there were concerns about her ancestry, did these resurface when it became clear she'd be queen instead of just married to the spare.
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The only sources I've found tend to be North Korean in nature so are highly suspect.
What do we know about the Sinchon Massacre?
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My wife's Grandpa gave me this pin and I'm trying to associate some history to it to show him. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!
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Carthago stands out in my mind, as well as an Assyrian city that I can't recall the name of.
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From what I understand, as soon as Stalin became leader of Soviet Russia, he immediately started to prepare the country for war. Hence all the 5 Year Plans.
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Welcome to Monday Methods!
About a month ago, we discussed if and what we learn from history. The discussion revolved around misapplied historical analogy and how to avoid the wrong analogy and use history to better understand the present.
Today's feature however will delve into the question if we as historians and historically educated people should have a role in public and political discourse and what kind of professional responsibilities arise from our knowledge and expertise.
This question is not a new one and has accompanied our profession pretty much from its modern inception with the likes of Gibbon and Ranke and continues with us until this day – especially in times that are uncertain like contemporary times.
E.g. Conyers Read, president of the American Historical Association, delivered an address to the members of the AHA in 1949, in which he pretty much states that the historian will make the difference between between democracy and communism.
Eric Hobsbawm, politically probably far removed from Read, expressed similar sentiments asserting that we as historians do have a political responsibility and a moral and political obligation to intervene in society.
And the debate around this topic has not stopped: Especially after recent political events, it was not only this sub that saw an increase in questions about authoritarianism, fascism etc. A former school classmate who now studies at one of the Ivys recently asked me if he should read Hanna Arendt's Elements and Origins of Totalitarianism in order to better grasp the current situation.
One thing Read was certainly right about in his address was that teaching and conveying knowledge is for many of us the bread and butter of our profession. Sometimes, when we write though, we do only convey knowledge to our colleagues rather than a non-historically educated public. However, do we also have an obligation or a responsibility to do so? As people trained in certain fields, is there a point in asserting that we also owe it to a wider public to make our work available, good, and easily accessible as well as intervene in public debates?
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I'm not from US, so I don't have a "deep" knowledge of US history. Nevertheless- recently I've developed some degree of interest in how US developed. Thus, knowing that Dems/Reps are political parties which exist almost from the beginning of US, I was really interested in what was their stance on slavery, egality and so on. I was rather shocked when it occurred to me, that it were Democrats that supported slavery while Republicans had exactly opposite goals. When did it actually start then?
As an extra question, being only partially historical- what's the reason for modern branding of them? I can see overwhelming number of voices calling Republicans outright "evil" and Democrats as "good"- was it like that since these parties were founded?
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I'm not very experienced or knowledgeable about pistols, so maybe this method of using the offhand to pull the hammer of a pistol back, rather than pulling the trigger, has some utility that is not obvious.
But, it seems as though it would jostle the weapon more (reducing aim), and also be slower, than simply using the trigger.
Is there any evidence that this method was actually used? If so, why? Thank you!
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I also found this pretty interesting, it's an article from 2003 detailing how George Bush's new tax tax policy that mimicked Coolidge's would return the country to the affluence of the 1920s. Were Bush's tax policies responsible for the recession of the late 2000s?
Were the Depression and Recession both the result of presidential tax policy, or were there other factors that led to the economic collapses?
Thanks in advance for any responses!
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I'm also curious if the mechanics of that shift were unique to Belgium, or if it's something that's been repeated in other European cities as well (though I understand that most countries don't have Belgium's particular language politics).
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