So I'm asking this as a long time lurker, infrequent question asker, but should we rewrite some of the FAQ posts given that the quality of the early days was inconsistent. Where the FAQ answers are short and not up to the standards of today, should we use different answers, or just straight rewrite them? Forgive me if the formatting is off

It seems really weird to allways hire gallic cavalry to fight other Gauls rather than use people from another country like sapaniard. Multiple times during the Gallic wars those soldiers abandoned Caesar or gave information to the enemy. So why did he allways pick Gauls for his cavalry?

hi, i want to know which city is considered the best preserved like pompeii, cairo, some rome city. a city that have most of the buildings still stand

For example, how would a king in the Persian empire refer to the year he started his rule? Did the Babylonians/Assyrians/Persians have the same reference point?

When did the train become used for war? And when did the use of diffrent sized track become common?

In my knowledge of history, whenever one country, state, or nation is being annexed or absorbed by another, it's always done so either unwillingly (through conquest and war) or begrudgingly (out of necessity, such as protection from a bigger, different threat). My question is whether there has ever been an example of one country coming to an agreement with another to join into a single state, or with one nation coming over and saying "Hey, do you guys want to be a part of us?" and the receiving nation saying "Sure! Here you go, take our sovereignty!" Has a situation of this sort ever existed before?

Edit: *Title should be "was not forced."

Why was the Old Testament kept as Canon? Are there not a lot of inconsistencies between the Old and New Testaments? What did the church have to gain by maintaining it, other than its historical information?

The New Testament preaches love and understanding while the old preaches harsh laws and severe punishments.

In the New Testament, Jesus sacrifices himself to cleanse christians of their sins, while in the Old Testament and in Judaism, Hebrews are seen as the chosen people. Would the Church not benefit from calling this a misinterpretation or manipulation of the texts by the "jewish heretics"? Would it not benefit more from calling christians god's chosen people (being as it was that the church was the Christian Church)?

And would it not benefit from saying that God sent his son, Jesus Christ, to correct these manipulations or misinterpretations?

If I'm right, why did the Popes and Patriarchs not push for these changes in the christian dogma?

And if I'm wrong, how so?

Thank you for your time, Internet Historias!

Just a thought I had when I saw an old Aussie WW1 propaganda poster. I don't think I've even seen a heavily overweight person in and WW footage

• Weren't the uniforms one size fits all during the WWs?
• Obviously they're not so fit, were they still sent to the front?
• What about today if men are forced to go to war?

I have been watching a series of "Great Courses" lectures on the Vikings. In it the lecture they mentioned that a group of lost Rus Vikings petitioned the Byzantine emperor to help them get home. It mentioned that Louis the Pious, after questioning them, had them imprisoned until he could "figure out who they were". A little internet research found that they were imprisoned after Louis the Pious realized they were Swedes and suspected they were spies. Neither said anything about them ever being released.

So... were they ever released? It seems incredibly heartbreaking for a group to travel from Sweden, cross the lands of half a dozen or more different peoples, sail down to Constantinople on the Black Sea, petition an emperor of a foreign state to help them find their homeland, follow this delegation all the way to the H.R.E., and then be imprisoned forever because they think you're a Viking spy, only a (comparative) hop, skip and a jump away from home.

I am currently writing a novel about the subject and am having trouble finding what exactly the situation would look like through his eyes during a battle such as the one suggested above. I want to be able to put myself in the shoes of John Byng but am struggling. Any help would be appreciated.

My guess is that nobody starting using the BC/AD system for awhile after Jesus died, but what alternative calender systems would they have been using at the time? What was the base year?

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My understanding is that a number of different protestant denominations, including the Anglican Church in India, the Presbyterian Church in India, and the Methodist church in India, combined into united north and south Indian churches. Why was this ecumenical unification successful in India, when it has not happened in the United States or Europe (at least, not as broadly)?