For the purpose of a story I'm writing, I am doing research and would very much appreciate a response, whether it is to clarify whether or not my thought process is correct on this, or to provide references to books and can read to find the answer myself.
I looked back to some answers from a few years ago, but none of them quite get to the nitty-gritty like I would like them to.
So I thank you ahead of time for your patience, if this is indeed answered.
Currently, this is my general idea of how Medieval Duties and Peerages Work:
King - Ruler, CEO
Duke - Top Manager/reports to Ruler, could have Counts, Viscounts, and Barons in territory
Marquis - Top Manager with less prestige/reports to ruler, could have Counts, Viscounts, and Barons in territory (more military and defense-focused)
Counts - Could be Top Manager with less prestige/reports to ruler, or could be under Duke or Marquis, could have Viscounts and Barons in territory
Viscounts - Project Manager, could have Barons in territory, worked under Counts
Barons - Minor Manager, worked under Viscounts, Counts, Marquises or Dukes, but usually had some kind of barrier between them and a higher manager type or between them and the ruler, could have knights in territory
Also, who would often be in the Ruler's meetings? I can't imagine every single baron, viscount, count, marquis, and duke would attend... Then again, perhaps they would, since I may be thinking about a larger amount of people attending than there actually would be. I just have a hard time imagining a round table with 100 people at it all discussing things with the king/ruler.
Is this relatively correct in mind with how it worked roughly 1850s for the UK in particular? I'm sure it may vary per-country, so I'm basing my story's peerage system off of the UK.
2 Answers 2022-01-03
It is a well known fact that Adolf Hitler wanted to be an artist,so in 1907,he went to the Academy of Fine arts,Vienna.As you know,he got rejected.He tried again in 1908 and he failed.Does history know the identity of the person who rejected him?Many things wouldn't have happened if they hadn't rejected him.
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I recently found out the British Avro Lancaster only had a single pilot at the controls with a flight engineer sitting next to him who had no flight controls. The Lancaster would perform long range, strategic bombing from England against Germany especially at night with missions that ran long for over 8 hours. How did a single pilot with no modern autopilot (meaning hand flying the entire time) manage such long missions? What happened when the pilot needed to relieve themselves, or eat, or got tired? And finally, do we have any sense for how many losses of Lancasters were caused purely due to pilot fatigue?
1 Answers 2022-01-03
Hi all! I came across an odd and very bold claim while doing research for an alternate history project, namely that the Portuguese knew about South America before Columbus ever set sail (as early as the 1420s, in fact). I tracked down this (admittedly very old) article on JSTOR that seems to be the main source for this claim. https://www.jstor.org/stable/1773506?seq=1#metadata_info_tab_contents
I tried reading it, but a lot of it I didn't understand, and I couldn't seem to find more up-to-date scholarly discussion either supporting or debunking this claim. I would greatly appreciate any insight anyone here has on this. Thanks in advance!
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So let’s say a spitfire squadron had to scramble, would the pilots get into an aircraft assigned to them before hand or would the same aircraft be switched between pilots. This question came up when I was looking at some records of a spitfire in 609 squadron that was flown by multiple pilots.
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I did a course this semester on the black islamic diaspora, and had spent some time looking at the NOI. I found their whole ideology very fascinating, especially in how their mythology seems to have been mashed together from different pieces of theology from various Muslim sects. The Yakub stuff, the stuff about the white devils, I presume those could’ve well been Fard. But the stuff about Fard being Allah and al-Mahdi? His occultation? Elijah Kareem’s flight from the original organisation (Mecca and the Quraysh) to establishing his Nation (Muhammad in Yathrib and his victory over the Meccans)? Those seem to me to be Elijah Kareem/Muhammad’s work. What do we know about how these disparate pieces of NOI theology were pieced together? And who was responsible for which pieces?
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Like I'm sure it varies from civilization to civilization, but even now with all the protective measures we have in place we're pretty vulnerable, and they didn't have cars to drive to safety
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Especially in the North African and middle eastern deserts they seem like genius. Extremely fast, have long range; they seem indestructible besides other chariots. Yet they fell out of fashion in actual combat. Why?
1 Answers 2022-01-03
Inspired by a comment here on reddit that jokingly claims Norwegians call themselves nordmenn (northmen) in order to accentuate their ties to the vikings.
The demonym for Norway literally means ‘northmen’ in all modern Scandinavian languages including Icelandic; but how and why – specifically in Norway itself as well as in its neighbouring kingdoms – did that term come to be associated exclusively with Norwegians? It makes sense that people from further down south in Europe would refer to them as such ('Lord deliver us from the wrath of the northmen’ and all), but that people living on approximately the same latitudes (e.g. Swedes and Icelanders) would adopt the same term seems less logical. I'm aware that there are multiple other instances in Scandinavian history of exonyms being derived from the location of a people’s settlements relative to that of the people naming them; Norwegians themselves were (at least in some cases) referred to as ‘eastmen’ in the Icelandic sagas, and according to Wikipedia the terms ‘northmen’ and ‘eastmen’ were regularly used to distinguish between inhabitants of different parts of Norway as recently as the 19th century.
So how did the term northmen, as opposed to, say, eastmen or austmenn, come to stick as a label for people from all over Norway? And this is just me speculating, but considering the prominence of medieval history in 19th century Norwegian national romanticist narratives, could the process have had anything at all to do with how the vikings (i.e. northmen) were perceived by descendants of their victims down south? Or was it purely a coincidence attributable to the way power happened to be distributed within Norway back when a Norwegian state was first being formed?
(Incidentally, the same wiki article also states – without citing any primary sources – that those defeated by Harald Hårfagre at the Battle of Hafrsfjord were known as ‘eastmen’ (austmennene) while those who fought on his side were the northmen (nordmennene), which I suppose would make a fine explanation considering the battle’s supposed significance in the ‘unification’ of Norway; but the actual contribution of Harald Hårfagre to Norwegian state formation is highly disputed anyway, and afaik there is still some controversy as to where exactly Harald was from and who exactly he came to rule over (for instance, the protagonist of Haraldskvedet, commonly identified as Harald Hårfagre himself, seems to have been styled ‘ruler of the eastmen’ – allvalds austmanna – even before his victory at Hafrsfjord) so I’m honestly not sure what to make of this information.)
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I really want to learn more about this. Stuff like the city states of Venice, Genoa, Geneva, etc. I want to learn about their naval ventures and their impact in crusades even.
But most especially I really want to learn about them during the Renaissance and Italian Wars. I know virtually nothing about either topic but they sound extremely interesting.
These wars raged on for seemingly have a century and had tons of warfare and players from Scotland to the HRE to Spain. It seemed to dominate European wars for ages, and yet I hardly ever hear anything about it and don’t know anything about it either.
Thoughts?
1 Answers 2022-01-03
Today I saw a post that said that Romans would substitute criminals into plays and if the character died the criminal in that role would actually die as a form of punishment. I know this is the case with the Gladiators, but I did not think it would extend to actual plays. Were there separate cases where criminals were expected to act?
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What purpose did the Arabic language generally serve throughout Ottoman history? Did it hold much significance to non-Arab Ottomans?
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It seems strange that all three countries were independently ready to fight a war against the world. Was there some central reason each country was separately willing? Was Germany for example only willing to on the condition that Japan and Italy would be there to support it, and those two countries willing to for the same reason? Was it that fascism, which helped feed each country’s desire for global domination, was a consequence of some transnational cultural phenomenon? My main interest is just about why all three countries were at the apex of their willingness at around the same time as each other
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*By civilization I mean a sedentary civilization with agriculture.
Kingdoms and states emerged independently in Eurasia, Sub-Saharan Africa, and the Americas, but were no indigenous states in Australia. Why is that?
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In certain societies that practiced slavery, like crusader Spain or the Ottoman Empire, enslaved people were sometimes able to be bought back by family or communities. Was this ever a possibility for enslaved people trafficked across the Atlantic?
1 Answers 2022-01-02
I've been told by some of the older guys that one of the reasons why British automotive and manufacturing suffered in the 60s/70s was due to obstruction by unions preventing change to be competitive. Is there any truth to this or were they scapegoated?
1 Answers 2022-01-02