Also, the reason why I am asking this is because i want to know how true is the claim that Buddhism is a subsect of Hinduism?

In particular, when the uniforms were in service, whether they would continue to be worn after being replaced due to supply shortages, and what equipment was expected to be carried.

I read that most of the ships were initially very vulnerable to aircraft, and that they were equipped with an increased number of anti-air guns accordingly. But beyond that, what was the strategy for dealing with air attacks? Did they use ships dedicated for the purpose of defending the bulk of the fleet from aircraft? How successful were they in shooting down or deterring attackers with AA guns when they could not intercept them with aircraft?

I mean, if the death rate was that high, was it something that happened in a very short time or over a longer time? When did it start? When did Native Americans stop dying of European diseases (at least, stop dying much faster from them than white people did)?

Was it the same in North and South America?

I've read many different explanations for the nickname of Ivar the Boneless. Can anybody point me at sources that could explain it?

In movies like Brave heart and such, all the fighters look the same and yet you see them almost instinctively knowing who is an enemy and who isnt. Was this accurate? or was there a lot of friendly fire?

I'm reading Hitchens's "God is Not Great" and he makes this claim. Sounds fishy to me--I googled it and didn't find much in the way of concrete information.

Many conservative Christian issues like gay marriage and abortion seem to be associated with messages and passages found in the Bible. However, the issue of the second amendment does not seem like an issue that conservatives Christians would traditionally support as it is not mentioned in the Bible and does not seem related to any Christian message.

When did the religious right pick up a pro gun rights stance? Why did the protection of the second amendment become a religious issue? How did conservative Christian leaders justify their support for gun rights?

Thanks!

In Portuguese Monday is called Segunda-feira, Tuesday terca-feira, and so on with only Saturday and Sunday being Sabado and Domingo respectively. But in Spanish the days all have names: Lunes, Martes, Miercoles, etc.

Presumably a split occurred at some point but when was that?

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Sunday marks 3 years to the day since our last historical linguistics AMA panel. Briefly, historical linguistics is the science of how language (in the general sense) and particular languages change.

Our panelists for this AMA span the globe, and so if your questions aren't answered right away, it's probably just that someone is asleep.

Without further ado, our panelists:

/u/CommodoreCoCo is an archaeologist who studies the pre-Columbian cultures of the Andean highlands. When not digging up pots, CoCo also studies historical linguistics. He focuses on the decipherment of untranslated scripts and the archaeological applications of linguistics, with an emphasis on Mayan, Quechua, and Aymara language families.

/u/keyilan is a historical/documentary linguist working in South China and the surrounding areas. His focus is largely phonological, and he is currently working on an analysis of the tone systems of severely underdocumented Sinotibetan languages. He's also heavily involved in community efforts at language preservation and revival.

/u/l33t_sas is a linguist working on issues related to the expression of space in Marshallese, an Oceanic language. He no longer focuses on historical linguistics issues in his work, though it remains an interest of his. Ask him about Pacific languages, and historical linguistics more generally.

/u/limetom is a PhD student who focuses on the history of the languages of Northeast Asia (specifically Japan), as well as language documentation, endangerment, and revitalization.

/u/rusoved is a laboratory phonologist working on Russian. His interests focus on sound systems: particularly, how are they structured, how do people learn them, and how can they change? He can also talk specifically about the history of Slavic and Indo-European more generally, with a focus on Indo-European languages of Eastern Europe.

Clark Clifford called him 'an amiable dunce'.

Richard Cohen wrote that 'This President is treated by both the press and foreign leaders as if he were a child.... It is major news when he honors a political or economic discussion with a germane remark and not an anecdote about his Hollywood days.' You can find various other quotations, including from the ex-President himself, used to support the idea that Reagan was profoundly stupid for a U.S. President.

Noam Chomsky rails against Reagan and the structures around him in a book from the 1990s which is a transcription of various group discussions he was involved in (I can track it down upon request.) Chomsky claims that the press were aware of Reagan's stupidity and that that is why they never sought his opinion on political matters after his presidency. From this, two side questions: is it true that Reagan vanished from the political stage altogether following his presidency and was not consulted for his view? Secondly, is that genuinely unusual in American politics? Have Carter, the Bushes, Clinton et al. been more prominent after stepping down?

A third optional question: was this image of Reagan as a dunce more widespread than it is today? Was it something people talked about often (e.g. commentators, comedians, everyday folk)?

Thanks for any and all answers you can provide to these questions, even if it's something a bit tangential.

I'm aware women painted their nails in ancient Egypt and China, but I'm not sure about Europe during the renaissance. I'd like to paint my nails but I have a renaissance fair coming up and if it isn't period appropriate, our guild leader will scold us.

Like, let's say for example the Republican Party were to nominate Roosevelt over Taft in the 1912 election. But has it ever actually happened?

I was curious about when Britain started losing its place as a superpower and when was it first economically and militarily surpassed by other nations. My historical knowledge extends up to the initial rise of the British empire and then there is a gap until after second world war and was never really sure when this took place, what caused it but also how Britain reacted or if they even noticed at the time.