I tried googling but I am getting some mixed answers. Has this been asked before?

Could be a textbook, even. As Americans, we're both realizing that we know far too little about the rest of the world. That being said, we both prefer books over internet sources, so any suggestions? Thanks!

I'm aware of some reasons such as rivalry between Pausanias and Lysander (I suppose not destroying Athens diminishes Lysander's prestige?) and trying to keep a balance of power against Corinth and Thebes, but I'm not very satisfied with these answers, not when Athens seemed to crush and enslave everyone they defeated as a rule of thumb.

Can we blame those who went participated in Eastern European education by German women, or those who took the homes of Polish jews were were deported. These Germans were excited to moved eastward into occupied territories. They felt they were doing something good for their nation. To what extend are they responsible.

They seem really heavy to carry around, and I can't perceive any use for them.

Just watched "Michiel de Ruyter" and started reading on the subject. What surprised me is that, despite De Ruyter hailed as a great admiral, almost none of his victories were anywhere close to decisive in terms of enemy losses. With the notable exception of Medway Raid, of course. Really strange to read about huge fleets struggles, resulting in losses of 1-3 ships out of 220 on both sides.

My first guess would be underdeveloped artillery technology of the period compared to quite advanced shipbuilding skills. But even taking this into account, I'd assumed, that some ships would take damage to sails/rigging and would be unable to flee. Is this the main/only reason or were there other factors at play?

I've heard the argument from Catholics that they only stood against certain scientists because they criticised the church or that they didn't actually have evidence to back up their views. Are these claims true at all?

I've recently read John Buckleys "British Armour in the Normandy campaign" and it astounds me that British Armour theorists seem to have never really learned any of the lessons everyone else did. Why was this? I know the British used a lot of American made vehicles like the Lees and Stuarts in North Africa, and the Shermans in Europe. It appears the US seemed to use them much more effectively than the British ever did. Why was this?

I was under the understanding that tyrants were defined by their lack of lawful authority to rule and being usurpers, but a video we watched in class suggests that many city-states built into their constitutions the ability to elect a tyrant if they were unhappy with the current rulers. I'd really appreciate a good explanation of what precisely a tyrant was!

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More specifically Switzerland which is right in the middle of France, Germany, and Italy.

I'm not talking about Ancient Aliens or anything like that. I'm curious when the modern concept of aliens first appeared.

So I read some of Chaucer's Canterbury Tales in college a few years ago. My personal favorite was the Miller's Tale, I thought it was nice and sophomoric.

My question is this: in the Miller's Tale, we hear the story of the carpenter's wife being pursued by a university student named Nicholas.

How would a scholar such as Nicholas, currently pursuing studies at a university and presumably not generating any income, support himself? More largely, how did university students at the time (1380's?) support themselves? How did they pay for room and board? food? Did they need a patron? Were 'loans' of some sort available?

When I was in school I had financial support from my family and took out loans. How would a student like Nicholas guarantee the financial means to engage in scholarly pursuits full-time?

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Did the actions of resistance groups help shorten the war and did they have any impact on Britain staying in the war?

For example, in what ways were ships different in terms of armour, speed, and firepower? And how were convoys and fleets operated and commanded differently between the two theatres?