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During the middle ages in Europe, how common was for Christians to know Arabic? Who would know Arabic; was it only diplomats travelling to the Middle east or also common or learned folk? Additionally, how would one learn it? I know that there were prominent Arab communities in Sicily and Spain and that they remained also after the Reconquista so I'm assuming that one could learn Arabic though these communities. Is that factual?

Presumably pretty closely linked to the spread of Christianity but to what extent and how? Would people have been slow or reluctant to adapt?

If so, a side by side comparison of the speech in his dialect and modern Japanese would be great (bonus points for IPA and gloss!)

I've also heard this was the first time the Japanese people heard their emperor. How true is this, not only for the reign of Hirohito, but other emperors? Did they ever address commoners, or did they completely cloister themselves off from the masses?

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I've read a couple of alternate history stores where that's the case, made me wonder why they didn't do that in real history?

It was my understanding, from reading several threads on this sub, that muscles seen by Vikings and gladiators in TV and movies aren't historically accurate. Muscles like that come from modern weight lifting and nutrition.

But classical statues show really defined muscles that require diets better than what any of them had. Would have nobles been able to get that? Or is there another reason for this discrepancy?

And if so how did it stay on? How comfortable were they? And did they keep them on when engaging in sex?

There's a few things I don't get about the SS. Obviously they had a bit of a reputation but was it a particular sort of man that joined the SS over a regular unit? Were the SS units better trained or better equipped? Why do their officers look particularly evil in movies? Could someone just explain the mindset in an SS unit or help me understand what made them do whatever they did to become particularly hated by the allies.

For obvious reasons, this is a throwaway.

Were these stereotypes complete propaganda by certain racists organizations? Do they have a source in reality? Am I on the wrong sub for this subject?

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I understand that many cities such as London and York developed out of old Roman settlements, but this question is referring to cities that developed in the time period of high medieval feudalism. Assumedly these cities started out on the land of some barony or county, but they must have left their lord's demesne and entered into that of the monarch? If this is the case, why would feudal lords allow such settlements to grow? If not, how did demesnes with cities fit into the feudal hierarchy? Thanks for all your help!

As a side question: I'm interested in how this question applies to the continent, specifically the Free Imperial Cities of the Holy Roman Empire?

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I know that the Spanish Civil War (1936-39) was essentially used as a strategic military testing ground by the governments of Germany, Italy, and the Soviet Union, but why did Franco choose to keep Spain out WW2 following the Nationalist's victory over the Republicans?

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I assume Michelangelo was a relatively common name.

Why do we remember Mr. Buonarroti by just his first name?