Taken a large interest in the Crusades and in particular, Saladin. Thoughts on this?

Traditionally the idea in China, and I believe a similar idea also exist in Persia and India, is that the conquering barbarian would eventually end up completely taking the conquered culture.

But I seem to remembers some scholars were arguing that this wasn't the case and they resisted culturization, or brought parts of their own culture, or actually only pretended to be culturized.

so what's the current scholarly consensus, or where are we on this debate?

I know it was due to birth and your family history, so it was more a caste rather than a social class. But what functional differences were there? Was there intermarriage between them? How did the system actually come about?

The Reichstag fire on 27 February 1933, led to the "improvisation" and approval of the Reichstag Fire Decree the next day, which impaired many of the civil liberties of the German people, and gave the National Socialists under Hitler the legal means to imprison those who were considered opponents to his government, and the ability to suppress publications against them. The document was, undoubtedly, one of the most important stepping stones towards a complete, one-party Nazi dictatorship. I find it hardly possible that a fire could break out, and in less than 24 hours Hitler manages to blame the Communists for the fire, convince the public, arrest thousands of members of the communist party all while creating an extremely significant legislation and attaining approval from Von Hindenburg in one day. Although I'm sure most of us question the legitimacy of the Reichstag fire, and all are suspicious of the convenience of the fire and extremely quick process of the elimination of Hitler's main political enemies in Germany and an attainment of increased power in one day, is there any proof (primary sources) that possibly indicate the Nazis as being responsible for the crime? I understand that the true instigator of the fire is still unknown, but I feel that the convenience of the event and the extremely fast elimination of Hitler's enemies along with his increased power in one day is reasonable grounds to suspect that it was a Nazi plot to attain further legal power and incriminate and silence his opponents.

Alchemy was practiced by humans for aeons. Today we are educated that the primary goals of alchemy were the transmutation of metals (into gold) and the pursuit of an elixir of immortality.

While I know that the axioms of the field are well refuted, surely over the course of thousands of years, the pursuits of alchemists must have spread further than these two topics and surely if not by accident they would have come across some interesting chemical compounds.

My question is did the field of alchemy make any real discoveries? What use was an alchemist? Did they create or discover any poisons/explosives/alloys?

I'm writing a story set in the 1890's and 1900's and one character must leave his discipleship as a blacksmith due to a lack of need for such people and he can only get a job in a mine or other lower position. Is that what could possibly happen in those years?

As the title says, what is the current viewpoint of the rebellion in current Chinese historiography? From what I read, he is officially seen in a positive manner as a somewhat proto-Communistic socialist revolutionary by the central government.

Is this correct and what are the varying viewpoints in current Chinese academia?

• Not a fossil or skeletal discovery.
• Not someone from a myth or fable.
• An actual person where we probably know their name and what they did.

It seems like every other documentary other than Adolf is about him

I keep hearing nostalgia about the 1990s. About how much better and simpler it was. Personally I really don't know since I was born in 1996. As a result I'm asking around for people who can provide me a detailed description and explanation.

What was it really like living in the 1990s if you lived in First World?

Additionally, what countries would they be sent to? Could they be in the same country as Peace Corp volunteers?

I was watching the end of Shindler's list, and wondered this. So I decided to come here. Was it a "take us down they go down with us" kind of deal?

Forgive my poor wording, this question is a bit hard for me to phrase. Essentially, I'm just wondering when and where the switch from "day is bright, night is dark" to "the next day starts when it's still dark out and includes the sunrise and sunset and then some" was made and for what reason.

EDIT: Basically, why does midnight signal a new day instead of sunrise and when did anyone decide that it should be like that?

I just watched a TV show about WWII, and it talked about the P-51 in Europe and the Hellcat in the Pacific, and the B-17 in Europe and the B-29 in the Pacific. What made these and other planes more suited for one theater than the other?

I searched around here a bit and didn't come up with anything, but if this has already been answered before I apologize -

To be clear, I'm asking about immigrants who came to America to work and save up money to send home to whichever country they came from.

Did they send home American currency or was this exchanged at the bank first for home currency, and were these processes usually handled by banks or some other organization(s)?

I'm most interested in Chinese immigrants but am also curious about those from other countries since I imagine the process might be handled differently from country to country?