I'm just wondering generally if historians generally agree that it was a success and how the US managed to achieve it if so?

For example, in the tale of Oedipus, he killed a man (who turned out to be his father) after arguing about who should give way to who on a road. This seems like a relatively minor dispute, and not something to kill over. Did people really kill each other over such minor stuff like that, and if so, how common was it?

Did the average peasant wear purchased clothing or was that clothing made by a family member? How about people living in towns rather than rural areas? How much does the answer vary as we get closer to the industrial revolution?

When you here pirates talk what accent is the stereotypical accent they use? Is it even real?

A co-worker of mine was ranting about slavery yesterday, and at one point he mentioned Wells-Fargo, claiming that they started as a slave trading company (his main piece of evidence seemed to be the fact that their logo used to be that of a stagecoach, which... implied slavery? I didn't quite get the connection).

Now, this sounded suspect to me- I pointed out that I was under the impression they started as a package delivery company, which was met with, "Yeah, what kind of packages do you think they were delivering?" I felt like this was likely total BS, but it occurred to me that my entire frame of reference was a song from the Music Man, so for all I knew, this guy was right, and I didn't want to go claiming my assumptions were true before fact-checking myself.

But I can't seem to find anything on the internet about Wells Fargo having any connection at all to slavery. Can anyone out there confirm my stance? There's two things I absolutely hate:

1. Spreading false hate (there's so much hate and racism out there, why would you need to make up more?)
2. Spreading misinformation (if your argument falls apart under the smallest amount of fact-checking, SHUT YOUR DAMN MOUTH)

Thanks in advance!

As I cant find much material on the subject, anything else that lends itself to the subject would be appreciated.

Partly considering it was originally a party emblem/flag.

During the medieval and dark ages, the Renaissance. Did the Renaissance ever reach there? When did the Greeks start to convert to Christianity compared to Italy and the rest of Europe?

I ask this because I always read about Italy and Northern Europe during those ages while Greece barely gets mentioned after the Roman Empire.

With all of the natural resources, I would think that they could have had moderate success creating some sort of industrial center there. Why didn't they?

For example, documentaries will say something along the lines of "xxxx, realizing that the situation had become critical, disengaged his soldiers and retreated to xxxx" or "the army then retreated to xxxx where it took up defensive positions"

Now, considering battle was done via melee combat, how would an army effectively retreat without being slaughtered in the process? Did generals leave certain units behind to soak up the enemy advanced as the bulk of their forces retreated?

I should point out that this isn't just soecific to the middle ages, but any period where battle was done with swords, bows, etc.

I read somewhere about a group of people (in Europe) who did nothing but drink the juices of fermented fruit (coconut?) all day. Can anyone tell me who they were? They may be mythical but I'm not exactly sure.