It seems like an entirely arbitrary example, but also seems like one that is ubiquitiously taught and repeated over and over.

I haven't seen much info of Gandhi's experiences in London of this time.

Does anyone here have possible insight into what has been recorded of it? What I've read thus far is quite brief.

Thanks.

Look at me, asking a question that technically falls under my own umbrella! I encountered this one in a piece of fiction this morning and felt somewhat skeptical about the claim, but couldn't find anything to support it or deny it in my own; I typically focus on later centuries and this one's a little vague. Vague time period, vague country, specific religion.

To quote what prompted this particular piece of fiction:

"I once read that due to Catholic views on masturbation in medieval times, kings/princes sometimes had masturbators who did that for them."

Any grain of truth in it? And, more suspect to me in this claim, is there any evidence whatsoever that a knight or similar would have this particular duty?

Thanks!

Pretty much as the title says: Western Europe today has one of the world's highest standards of living and regional GDP per capita. My question is whether that is hundreds of years of imperialism paying off, or if Western Europe's comparatively high standard of living predated colonialism and the age of empire?

I'm familiar with Biblical history, the evangelism of Paul, and the legitimization of Christianity by Constantine. But I don't under how the religion spread so far and fast during the first few hundred years before Constantine ended the persecutions. There were so many other religions and so much violence against Christians. Not to mention the fact that gentiles weren't even sure the religion applied to them for most of the first century.

as i know, while conquesting england, william was helped by feudals from britanny and flanders. after conquest william gave lands to his companions:

1. that means the lands were given not only to normans?
2. he gave lands to all of his companions? thank u in advance

I remember in one of my classes, my professor struggled to explain the concept of imperium. He told us that imperium was the authority to command men/legions, but that it also had a higher, religious significance as well. How is imperium as an idea interpreted? What did it mean to the Roman people? Did it change or develop over time? Thanks.

It is often believed that the biggest mistake the Nazi's made in WWII was deciding to invade/underestimating the power of the Soviet Union. The USSR, like China and Japan, was more than willing to sacrifice their own people in order to win the war, and did so with staggering death tolls to show for it. During the peak dominance of both countries, they controlled the vast majority of Europe. Was there ever a time when the two super powers considered aligning and ruling Europe, facing off against the Allied Powers and ruling Europe together?

TL;DR: Together Germany and the USSR controlled almost all of Europe. Did they consider ruling Europe together?

Please try and not send any links that are Islamic in Origin as they will most likely be very very biased.

Thank you for taking the time to comment.

How was food sweetened or was it sweetened at all?

I've read that, though it may seem harsh and cruel by modern standards, the legal concept of an "eye for an eye" was actually a way to limit violence by creating a mechanism that ensured that a punishment would be no greater than the crime.

Is this correct? What do we know about the origin of this principle? Also, is this idea something only found in Western traditions descended from Babylonian jurisprudence, or do you find expressions of the idea in early Eastern societies?

At the end of "The Pacific" one of the soldiers, after being made to stay in Okinawa (?) after the war, remarks how if they had gone home earlier a girl, who had just rejected him, would have given them all blowjobs. Is there any truth in this statement?

There were two Greek wars and one Roman war which were distinguished by the name "Social War". What did the word mean in that time period, and what about these wars led them to be called this?

I also read that pyrrhus was a 2nd cousin of Alexander the Great, which would explain how he got into the companions. I just can't pull up anything stating other than he simply served.

In things like Band of Brothers and Fury it seems like when a tank gets hit, that's it, everyone's done for. How likely was a tank crewman to survive the war? How much did it depend on where I was deployed or what tank I was in? Or my role?

in 1066 william the conqueror won against anglo-saxons in the battle of hastings. i want to know the content of william's army. actually, i want to know the feudal titles of that feudals that participated in the battle. as i know there were graffs, viscounts, barons and knights in williams army. am i right? thank u in advance

And how did they compare to their contemporaries in the Mediterranean?

Is there any recommended reading for Carthage's history? (I have read Richard Miles' "Carthage must be destroyed")