Hello! I have a question. Prior to the Muslim conquest of Spain, the Iberian Peninsula was inhabited by various tribes such as the Germanic Visigoths. Now current Spaniards and Portuguese look usually different from modern Germanics, and I was curious. After the conquest of Spain was there much intermarriage between the Arabs and the Spaniards that may have caused Iberians to look so different?

From what I've gathered, disease was the primary cause of most native indian deaths, e.g. smallpox, chickenpox, typhus, etc. However I'm guessing the indigenous tribes weren't healthy all of the time; so what kind of diseases were indigenous to North America?

I just finished an "Eastern Modernisation" course focusing on Qing China and Tokugawa/Meiji Japan - in both cases, Manchuria was fought over (see: Russian expansion post-unequal treaties and Boxer Protocol, and Manchurian invasion by Japan in 1931) by various countries. Keeping in mind that the Qing dynasty was declining rapidly throughout the late 19th and early 20th century, why was Manchuria so important? Was it a strategic area? Was it particularly full of resources?

Recently watching a documentary on the stone-age structure in Orkey, Scotland, i found that they repeatedly claimed that everything was either religious or ritualistic.

What records are there, if any (I really don't know), of the life and times of the Abrahamic Moses, OTHER than of various religious scriptures? What's your take? Did this man exist, and if so, are there secular records of this, and what are they?

I've heard this a lot, but as far as I am aware the number of hippies wasn't actually very high, so I imagine some fudging is done about just people from the 60's voting republican, as opposed to hippies in particular. But a cursory googling isn't finding me much good stuff about this.

Were there privately owned merchant ships, or were all/the majority of them owned by big trading companies?

In either case, were actual merchants brought on board and were these merchants the ones who dealt in trade once they docked in foreign shores? If there were "independently owned merchant ships", how likely would it be if the captain himself was the who conducted trade, buying goods from one port and selling them in another?

Or were merchant ships little more than cargo ferries that carried goods that had already been purchased (or been agreed to be purchased) from point A to point B? For instance, trading company X has an agreement to buy silk from trading company Y in India, and simply sends a ship to pick up the goods and pass along the fee.

Hi, so I'm a history student, and I've been through a survey of American History, so I know the basics of what I'm talking about... But sometimes I'd like to get a more detailed and in depth view of a particular issue. Today, this is that issue. I know that in the mid 18th century, Democrats generally opposed social rights changes like the ending of slavery and the influence of big government... And the Republicans were the ones pushing for social rights and big government involvement, and a big change occurred in the parties and they basically swapped places... But I'd love to get a more specific and detailed look at this.

Also The NAZIs were all for racism so how did they rationalize having the Japanese as allies?

On Wikipedia it states "Some 400 evacuees were left behind at the Embassy including over 100 South Korean citizens."

I can't find out any information on their fate.

You often hear about how slavery started to disappear in the northern US because it became apparent free labor was more efficient.

I don't see, however, how paying someone to do work would be a better deal for you than having slaves do it for almost nothing?

I consider German Unification complete once all of the states of the German Confederation are integrated into one state. Sadly, the closest to accomplishing that was when Nazi Germany annexed all of the other states except for Liechtenstein. And then 1990 came but Austria still exists. Why?

Also,when did people first start using BCE and CE instead of BC/AD?

buggies sorry

In many movies and video games, Soviet soldiers are portrayed as having very inconsistent uniforms. Nowhere near as consistent as say, British or German uniforms. I'm wondering if these portrayals are accurate or not. Thanks. :)