Was this just language evolving over time or was it more of an intentional change for political reasons?

I've been doing a lot of reading on Rome and of course they alway referred to the region as Gaul. I know there were the Franks there as a group and I can only assume the name change to France had something to do with them but I'm afraid I have quite a huge gap in my knowledge here.

I was hoping someone here with more knowledge might be able to fill me in or point me to some sort of source I could check out on my own.

I think we've all seen the picture of the man with the bags in front of the line of tanks. I'm on mobile, so you'll excuse me not linking something so famous.

To me, the fact that it's a still picture suggests that it was a moment of silent tension? I can't imagine what would have happened afterward. Unfortunately, I don't really know the back ground to it anyway, shop I don't know what happened politically afterward either.

My wife and I were walking through the Army Museum and we saw a complete transition from heavy armor and chain mail to almost nothing (heavy cloth) in the late 17th and early 18th centuries. We saw almost no transitional uniforms. We were wondering when exactly that occurred and why.

Mauritius is far smaller, while Falklands is enormous. Why did colonists thrive in Mauritius while only a few thousand people live in the Falklands?

Many UK convicts were sentenced to transportation to Australia for petty crimes such as stealing bread or a handkerchief. My own Great Great Great Grandmother was sent to Australia from Ireland for stealing potatoes.

What were the reasons for such petty offenses receiving such large penalties by today's standards? It seems such a harsh way to settle a new country.

Thank you for taking the time to comment.

I've been really curious to why the majority of victims were female? I heard of the reasons for the outbreaks that started were political and economical reasons + weather conditions... so I'm still lost as to why it was one gender more than the other being persecuted as witches? Or can that just not be explained?

(Sorry, was just interested in the topic, but couldnt seem to find anything - Although I do understand not ALL the victims were female)

Not necessarily in Europe.

I've been an avid watcher of History's Viking series though I've never read or learned much else about them. I'm curious if somebody here can help me better understand their economy, and explain what they did with all that loot!

Did they have mercantilist views in regards to their gold and plundered loot? Did they trade much with other clans or peoples?

Sorry if this sub is more for questions that open discussion rather than a direct answer, but this is really on my mind:

Came across this quote attributed to "Ovid," but trying to find its source or context is turning up nothing. Does it sound familiar to anybody?

"Happy is the man who has broken the chains which hurt the mind, and has given up worrying once and for all."

I remember someone saying that the Achaemenids always had an ambassador in Athens and vise versa, but it this true? What are the earliest records of countries sending representatives to each other?

Preferably in MW, thank you.