I know very little about Fascist Italy, unfortunately, and would like to know a lot more about how Mussolini's system operated. I have heard that, while Mussolini had inspired German Nazism a lot when it was first coming to power, specifically events such as the Beer Hall Putsch, in the 1930s and 40s Hitler and Germany began to greatly influence Italy. Specifically, I have heard that there where some Jewish members of the Italian Fascist Party who had to leave the party because Germany pushed Nazi racial politics on Italy. Is this true? And what other effects did German Nazism have on Italian Fascism?

Despite being part of the same Continental West Germanic dialect continuum as the various German dialects and regions that would eventually be subsumed into a German national identity and standard language, the Low Franconian speakers of the Low Countries instead built their own identity and standard language that continues this day as the Netherlands. Why is this?

I'm curious if the planes caused any significant damage to unsuspecting cites or towns.

One of the leftist blogs I follow posted a list of things that white progressives need to keep in mind. #4 was:

homophobia" and "transphobia" exist because of white supremacy, imperialism, and settler colonialism. the gender binary is a colonial imposition to uphold racism. white people may use "gay" and "trans" identities to position themselves as victims of the very systems they are responsible for creating. if you are interested in ending homophobia/transphobia, you must end racism.

This claim seems to imply that no cultures prior to western colonialism exhibited any form of a gender or sexual binary. That seems incredibly hard to believe. A commenter responded by saying that

I [sic] think #4 falls short on historical grounds, as [another person in the comments] has already stated. There is an unfortunate tendency in post-colonial theory to oversimplify pre-colonial realities, something [someone else in the thread] has made me think a lot about. It's important not to force history to fit our political paradigms. I suppose the terms "homophobia" and "transphobia" are specifically white and western in so far as they don't translate to non-western taxonomies of gender and sexuality, but that's a good place to start and not to end a discussion on the complex social statuses (variously marginalized and privileged) of gender non-normative bodies and minority sexualities in pre-colonial contexts.

Without touching on the political aspect of this post, is there any truth to the claim that the notion of sexual and gender binaries are solely the product of western ideology or is this a misrepresentation of history rooted in political commitments? Or is the truth of the matter even more complex than that?

Just curious about the state of civil war studies.

Is it approximately 4,000 years old or 3,000? Is there a source which confirms its age?

When researching the Roman Empire, I found that its legacy resonated throughout history, however, I wonder if the average peasant or noble actually knew about the empire and its successes as we do when being taught at school.

If it was known, how far geographically would this knowledge be. Would people in Africa, India or China know about this once great Empire?

To get to where we are now, everyone is being educated and now everyone knows of the roman empire, when did this start to become widespread knowledge?

Was it simply location, certain laws (or lack thereof), etc? Why did the Medellin cartel choose it as a main shipping point?

Reading about it it seems that Henry gained a lot from breaking with Rome. He was free to resolve his matter, he was also able to bring the monasteries under his control for his own financial benefit.

What factors prevented other monarchs like the French or Spanish kings from doing the same? Was it merely piety? Or was their political position far more uncertain or were their people simply more favorable towards the Pope than England's?

Thanks.

This question’s been on my mind for a while now, mostly because I ‘ve never been able to find any discussion behind it, but is there any evidence to suggest this may have been the case?

If you look just beneath the capitals on Trajan or Hadrian’s columns, it seems to show fluted columns lay underneath the winding ribbon. I’m starting to wonder if all fluted columns were wrapped, and think that the fluting may have been designed specifically for this, for a few reasons.

Thoughts appreciated.

Roma are similar to Jews in the aspects of how they've always been diasporad, ostracized or historically oppressed, and they were also systematical exterminated by the Nazis, so why with the rise in nationalism after the war didn't anybody think to give the Romanis a state?

I've heard a bit about Zhang Xianzhong and I find the story rather incredible: a peasant leader who turned his forces on a mission of orgiastic, indiscriminate violence, apparently killing one million inhabitants of Sichuan. His soldiers would apparently fan out through the cities and countryside murdering and beheading everyone they met. On one hand, the story strikes me as bearing an uncanny resemblance to those of other peasant leaders such as the Song Dynasty Fang La, as well as the general literary convention of portraying bandits as quasi-demonic forces bent on slaughter and cannibalism. It is also somewhat suspicious that he was eventually put down by the Qing forces, allowing them to portray themselves as saviors like they did with Li Zicheng. On the other hand, I hear there are also some less interested Jesuit sources on this, and even accounting for problems with Ming census data there was a real depopulation.

So I suppose I want to know to what extent these lurid stories are supportable, or if they are just Qing propaganda and literary topoi of peasant rebellion.

I'm sorry if I broke any subreddit rules I tried opening the rules but they wouldn't open.

Also I can't link the post on /r/vexillology cause I'm using reddit sync

As I understand it, it was taken from Germany after WW2. Why isn't it part of, say, Poland, like the other areas populated by (mostly) Germans at the time?

I've been playing War Thunder for a while, and this happens from time to time. Has it ever happened in real life?

Why have the Georgian people not been in diaspora as extensively or as long as their neighbours, the Armenian people, even though the homeland of the Georgians as well as that of the Armenians has been conquered numerous times by surrounding powers? (I am talking about long before the 1915-16 Armenian genocide as well.)