Why do some historians regard the battle of seven pines as the most important battle of the civil war?

All answers apreciated

There were many tortured and murdered Christian martyrs. Was the violence done by the empire in the past still felt by the Christians, even years after acknowledgment of the religion? Was the memory of persecution still invoked to them, while venerating the saints perhaps?

What do they think of the past emperors/empire generally?

I am looking for a concise chart with this information on it. Sorry in advance if this is not the right place for this question.

I don't know of any part of the Bible where Jesus said it was ok to disregard the Old Testament dietary rules, so I would surmise that they were followed for a period after his death. When did that change happen though, and how?

I am aware that there is an understanding that plague introduced into Mexico/South America decimated the native population so that by the time the Pilgrims landed, was only 4% of the remaining population that had been lost. Was that statistically inevitable for a plague to be introduced? What was the likelihood of one of that veracity making its way back to Europe? Was public policy against Native Americans driven by specifically ruthless leaders where other trains of thought might have prevailed (Columbus is the best example of a psychopath in charge of diplomatic relations)?

Preferably about late medieval and into the Pike and Shot period.

First time posting here. :)

Did people lose all their money? I don't understand the Wikipedia article.

edit: C'mon historians. I NEED TO KNOW.

Was this ever a real possibility? I've heard that the German forces in the northern French coast were very weak and this was compounded by the confusing German command structure in the area. However I also read that the Allies had a helluva time getting past Omaha Beach and that the hedgerows further inland held the Allies up for months so the Allies still had plenty of problems. Was it ever a real possibility that Overlord would in fact fail?

I would assume it took at least a few weeks before all the people on the plantations in the "deep south" were notified that there was no longer slavery. Does anyone know the time line between the signing of the Emancipation Proclamation and everyone being free?

If this question is too broad for you how about Capetian France or Tudor England?

Some reading tonight suggested that the Byzantine empire continued to call themselves "Romans" or "Imperium Romanum" even after the center of power in Rome itself was destroyed/moved. Why is this? Did they continue to imagine the height of power could be restored after a reconquering of the west? Or was it as simple as the cultural practices had been so deeply ingrained that Roman was not related the city and heart of the former empire at all?

Edit: (Sorry for using the term Imperium Romanum, I know they spoke Greek instead of Latin, but I believe there were equal terms used in Greek)

After the invasion of North-East Poland (now Belarus) He was interned at a work camp in Uksora, Siberia. left Russia via Persia and joined the Poles who would eventually fight at Monte Casino. He died some years ago, he mentions this in some written notes he made during the 1970s, as well as actually detailing the conditions in Russia. Note: I may be mistaken about the NKGB, he states the KGB but I'm sure that was a later development. Many thanks to those who can help!